2024年黑龙江省齐齐哈尔市建华区中考三模英语试题
展开第一部分 语言知识运用(共计45分)
I.单项选择(每小题1分,共10分)
从每小题所给的A,B,C三个选项中,选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项
( )1.Remember t be hnest student when yu’re ding this test. Yu must believe in yurself.
A. aB. an C. /
( )2.The idim(成语) “Mengzi mther makes three mves” tells f a mther wh tried her best t prvide the best fr her child.
A. experience B. infrmatin C. envirnment
( )3.Swimming is a ppular frm f exercise. It can help peple imprve in health.
A. themselves B. urselves C. yurselves
( )4.2024 is the Year f Lng (the Chinese dragn). The Year f Lng cmes every years.
A. tenB. twelve C. twenty
( )5.The rads are getting as mre peple g t wrk in the mrning.
A. busierB. wider C. cleaner
( )6.—The cmputer is wrking again.
—It yesterday, but smene has fixed it.
A. brke away B. brke dwn C. brke ut
( )7.—Excuse me, is this T-shirt?—It’s 198 yuan.
A. hw ld B. hw many C. hw much
( )8.The dcumentary A Plastic Ocean is s educatinal that I it several times s far.
A. will watch B. watched C. have watched
( )9. smart the rbt cleaner is! I really want t have ne.
A. HwB. What C. What a
( )10.—Dear friends, d yu still remember three years ag?
—T realize ur dreams!
A. whm yu came here with B. why yu came here C. hw did yu cme here
II.完形填空(每小题1分,共15分)
阅读短文,从每小题所给的A,B,C三个选项中,选出一个能填入空白处的最佳选项
Wang Jibing is a fd takeaway rider, In 2019, he had a terrible experience because the custmer left the 11 address. Wang searched three buildings and climbed 18 flrs 12 he finally brught the fd t the custmer Hwever, the custmer was angry with Wang fr 13 late.
Wang was 14 .On his way hme that day, he wrte a pem, Man in a Hurry. Since then, he has started writing pems and 15 them with his friends. In 2022, ne f his friends psted Man in a Hurry nline. It 16 went viral(走红), The same year, Wang published a cllectin f ver 180 pems, 17 the same title. The cver f the bk Man in a Hurry is blue, the same 18 as the unifrm that Wang wears. In April 2023, Wang published his 19 cllectin f pems, titled I Lve This Wrld Clumsily.
Thugh Wang has published tw bks, he has n 20 t give up his jb and becme a fulltime writer “I enjy writing very much, but nw, the mst imprtant task is t 21 my family, Wrking as a fd takeaway rider gives me time t 22 , thanks t the flexible(灵活的) wrking hurs, S I will keep my 23 ,” Wang said
Wang’s pems and stries have 24 many peple, including his three children. At first, they didn’t knw abut their father’s 25 f writing pems at all. Nw, they are als learning t write pems.
( )11. A. full B. wrng C. n mm al
( )12. A. after B. since C. befre
( )13. A. arriving B. resting C. remembering
( )14. A. nervus B. excited C. unhappy
( )15. A. shared B. mixed C. cmpared
( )16. A. prbably B. quickly C. crrectly
( )17. A. abve B. under C. amng
( )18. A. clr B. size C. shape
( )19. A. first B. secnd C. third
( )20. A. plans B. risks C. spirits
( )21. A. part with B. depend n C. lk after
( )22. A. hide B. write C. succeed
( )23. A. jb B. advice C. secret
( )24. A. chsen B. caught C. mved
( )25. A. research B. preparatin C. hbby
Ⅲ.交际运用(共20分)
(A)根据对话内容,从A到F选项中,选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,每个选项只使用一次,选项中有一项为多余项。(每小题2分,共10分)
A: Excuse me. Can yu tell me if there is a gd place t see a mvie?
B: (26) I think Wanda Cinema is the best.
A: Why?
B: The seats there are cmfrtable and the price is lw.(27)
A: Thanks.(28)
B: G dwn this street and walkabut three blcks and tum left. Yu can see it n the right.
A: (29)
B: N, it nt far frm here, just ten minutes’ walk.
A: Thanks a lt.
B: (30)
(B)结合本题所设置的情境,在每个空白处填入适当的内容完成下列对话。(每小题2分,共10分)
A: Hell! This is Gina speaking.
B: Hi, Gina! This is Jane.(3I) ?
A: Nt very gd. What are yu calling fr?
B: (32) .
A: I’m srry, but I can’t g with yu.
B: Why nt? Badmintn is yur favrite, isn’t it?
A: Yes. But I’m a little sad.
B: (33) ?
A: I failed the math exam again. (34) ?
B: I’m srry t hear that. I think yu shuld practice mre and study the reasns fr making mistakes carefully. Yu’ll d better if yu dn’t give up.
A: Thanks fr yur advice. I feel better. Let’s g t play badmintn this afternn.
B: Great! (35) ?
A: Hw abut 2: 30 at the schl gate?
B: OK. See yu then.
A: See yu.
第二部分 阅读理解(共计60分)
IV.阅读理解(A、B、C、E、F每小题2分,D每小题1分,共60分)
(A)
阅读下面文字,从A到F选项中为每个段落选出一个最适合的标题。(每小题2分,共10分)
Starting senir high schl can be difficult. Yu may feel nervus because yu dn’t knw where t g fr class. Meeting new friends might make yu nervus, t. Dn’t wrry. Yu are nt alne. Yu are ging t schl with a grup f students f yur age.
( )36.N ne likes a classmate with a bad smell. S yu need t shwer ften, brush yur teeth and wash yur hair. Try t make yurself lk tidy, n matter what yu wear,
( )37.Take a deep breath and find yur beautiful vice. Intrduce yurself and start a cnversatin abut smething yu have in cmmn. Sit in the middle f the classrm with many new friends arund yu
( )38.Everyne has his wn pinin f the wrld and everyne b elves in different things. Yu’ll find it gd t have friends with different ideas. In this way, yu can share and learn a lt mre frm each ther.
( )39.What clubs can yu jin? Yu can jin the nes with the afterschl activities that interest yu. Being in a club helps yu be mre scial. Or yu will just g t class and g hme.
( )40.Are yu sad when being alne while thers are playing happily? Yu will prbably say “yes”. S remember t be kind t the peple arund yu. If yu see smene sitting alne, invite him t hangut r play games tgether
(B)
“The grass lks greener n the ther side f the fence.” That’s an ld saying in English. It means ther places ften lk better, mre interesting than the place where yu live. Sme peple wrry that yung Chinese are beginning t feel that way. They see yung Chinese ignring (忽视) Chinese culture and, instead buying Japanese cartn bks, watching Krean sap peras and even celebrating western hlidays.
Freign bks and sap peras are gd, but Chinese writers and actrs are just as gd. As fr hlidays Christmas is nice, but it can never have the meaning that the Spring Festival has fr Chinese, and the West has nthing t cmpare with the Mid—Autumn Festival. And let’s nt frget the imprtant part f Chinese culture —its friendliness. Nt all cuntries area swam as China.
It’s gd t enjy ther cultures and learn frm them, but they cannt replace yur wn culture. It’s gd t lk n the ther side f the fence, but make sure yu take a gd lng lk. Yu will find that the grass isn’t always greener n the ther side f the fence.
根据文章内容,判断句子正(T)、误(F)(每小题2分,共10分)
( )41.The ld saying means yur wn place lks better than ther places
( )42.Sme peple wrry that yung Chinese may ignre Chinese culture.
( )43.Friendliness is a part f Chinese culture.
( )44.This passage mentined three Chinese festivals.
( )45.In the writer’s pinin, we shuld respect ur wn culture while learning frm ther cultures.
(C)
阅读上文,从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。(每小题2分,共10分)
( )46.Teenagers need t sleep at least every day.
A. eight hurs B. nine hursC. ten hurs
( )47.Peple feel the sleepiest at during a day.
A. 20’clck in the mrning B. 2 ’clck in the afternn C. bth A and B
( )48.The writer explains sleep deprivatin plays a rle in accidents by .
A. asking questins B. listing numbers C. giving examples
( )49.Mnkeys sleep abut hurs mre than elderly adults.
A.3B.5C.7
( )50.Which is the fllwing can be put in ▲ ?
A.SUGGESTIONS B.FACTSC.QUESTIONS
(D)
阅读短文,根据首字母或所给词的适当形式填空,使文章语义通顺。(每小题1分,共10分)
If yu lk at the tp f yur phne, yu’ll usually see a little symbl that says 3G r 4G. The “G” (51)s
fr the “generatin” f yur mbile netwrk. But the symbls will becme things f the past after 5G netwrks (52)
(full) arrive. On March 30, 2019, Shanghai vice—mayr Wu Qing made the first 5G vide(53) c
n a Huawei smartphne. Shanghai has als (54) (becme) the first city in China t start testing 5G netwrks.
Abut 100 (55) (time) faster than 4G netwrks, 5G will let peple dwnlad and uplad data (数据) faster. But 5G wn’t just bring faster mbile internet. Peple can use it fr many ther things as well Fr example, 5G will help make self—driving cars much (56) (safe). Tday’s self—driving test cars have ne(57) p
-lag(延迟). When the car “sees” an bstacle(障碍物), it sends this infrmatin t a datacenter and receives instructins, Hwever, it will be sme time befre it sends and receives this infrmatin. With this kind f lag, the cars might crash, (58) b they can’t receive instructins in time. With 5G, this lag will be greatly lwered.
5G will als (59) (use) t pwer the Internet f things (IOT), that is a large nline netwrk that cnnects all things and peple. Fast internet speeds will be the key t develping this technlgy. Fr example with IOT, yur refrigeratr culd autmatically(自动地) place an rder nline fr eggs when it finds that there are(60) n
eggs left inside.
(E)
Plant wners knw it is difficult t find ut what plants need, but it turns ut that plants may have been telling yu all alng. A new study fund that when plants are stressed, they make special sunds saying what’s wrng.
Earlier studies had shwn that plants shake when under stress. But fr years, scientists have dubted whether thse shakes becme sund waves(声波). By studying tmat plants inside a greenhuse, researchers discvered that it’s true—plants cry ut fr help thrugh sunds.
“We fund that plants usually make sunds when they are under stress and that each plant and each type f stress is cnnected with a different sund,” a researcher said. Human adults can nly hear frequencies(频率) up t 16 kilhertz(千赫). In the study, special micrphnes we replaced abut 10 centimeters frm each plant and fund sunds at frequencies between 20 and 250 kilhertz. And the mre stressed plants were, the mre they cried.
“We think that in nature the sunds made by plants are heard by animals nearby and pssibly als ther plants that can hear the high frequencies,” anther researcher said. Humans can als use this infrmatin. All they need is the right tls—such as sensrs(传感器) that tell grwers when plants need watering.
This is especially helpful in farming, as researchers nted that “it can help save up t 50% f the water and increase the prductin”. This ability gets mre imprtant as the wrld cntinues t deal with fd shrtage.
阅读短文,回答下列问题。(每小题2分,共10分)
61. What is the result f the new study?
62. Why can’t humans hear the sunds made by plants?
63. In the search, when did plants cry mre?
64. Can humans make use f plant sunds by using the right tls r by watering plants?
65. In which ways can this ability f plant help humans? (List at least tw ways)
(F)
阅读短文,根据题目要求完成下列任务。(每小题2分,共10分)
①D yu like t sit tgether with yur family and drink tea after meals? Recently, “stve—biled’’ tea(围炉煮茶) has been a ppular activity all arund China.
②Fr thusands f years, tea has been a ppular drink in China. Alng with firewd, rice, il salt, sauce and vinegar, tea is regarded as ne f the (A) necessary things fr life by Chinese peple. Since ancient times, Chinese peple have been planting, picking, making and drinking tea. Biling tea is ne f the ldest Chinese tea brewing methds (煮沏法), dating back t the Tang Dynasty. Tea leaves were biled fr a lngtime and smetimes they were cked tgether with different kinds f fruits. While peple (B) biling tea, they culd enjy a quiet time. Later in the Ming Dynasty, a fast and cnvenient methd became ppular—steeping(冲泡).
③Hwever, the ld methd is nw becming ppular again amng Chinese yung peple. On the App Xiahngshu, r Little Red Bk, there are ver 40, 000 psts(帖子) n the tpic f “stve—biled’’ tea. They lightly rast tea leaves befre biling them in a teapt n a stve. Peples it arund the stve in a natural envirnment and have snacks with their ht tea. Sme als wear hanfu as if (C) it culd take them back t thse ancient times.
④Thrugh “stve—biled” tea, peple can taste as lwer and mre cmfrtable life and find a peaceful life. As is written in ne Xiahngshu pst, “It is very relaxing t drink ht tea, feel the wind and chat with best friends.”
66.根据文章内容和要求,在(A)和(B)两处分别填入适当的单词:
(A) (填入英文数字)(B)
67. What’s the main idea f Paragraph 2?
68.(C)处画线单词“it”指代的是:
69. Which is the right structure f this passage?
A. B. C.
70.从文中找出两个描述在围炉煮茶过程中人们内心感受的形容词:
第三部分 书面表达(共计15分)
V.书面表达(本题共15分,其中A、5分,B、10分)
A:学校将于六月二十一日下午三点半在校礼堂举行毕业典礼(ceremny),要求每个同学准备一句想对同学或老师说的话。请你替学生会拟一则通知,并提醒同学们穿着校服、不要迟到。(30—50词)
B:为促进中外学生间的学习和交流,你校与一所英国友好学校联合开展了题为“My Experience f Ding Husewrk的征文活动。请根据以下提示和要求,用英语写一篇短文。
What have yu learned frm it?
Tell an experience f ding husewrk.
What husewrk d yu usually d?
写作要求:1.80—100词; 2.包含所提示要点,并适当进行拓展; 3.字迹工整,语言流畅,表达准确,逻辑清晰。
初三英语试题参考答案及评分标准(2024.06)
Ⅰ.单项选择(每小题1分,共10分)
1—10BCABA BCCAB
Ⅱ.完形填空(每小题1分,共15分)
11—25BCACA BBABA CBACC
Ⅲ.交际运用(共20分)
(A)26—30BAEDF
(B)31.Hw is it ging?
32. I’d like t invite yu t play badmintn(this afternn)./I’m calling t ask if yu can play badmintn with me.
33. What’s wrng with yu?/What’s the matter?/What happened t yu?
34. What shuld I d?
35. When and where shall we meet?
Ⅳ.阅读理解(A、B、C、E、F每小题2分,D每小题1分)
(A)36—40EBDFA
(B)41—45FTTFT
(C)46—50ACCAB
(D)51.stands 52.fully 53.call 54.becme 55.times
56. safer 57.prblem 58.because 59.be used 60.n
(E)61. When plants are stressed, they make special sunds saying what’s wrng.
62. The frequencies f plant sunds are between 20 and 250 kilhertz, but humans can nly hear frequencies up t 16 kilhertz./The frequencies f plant sunds are t high fr humans t hear
63. When they were mre stressed./The mre stressed plants were, the mre they cried.
64. By using the right tls
65. It can help save up t 50% f the water/increase the prductin/deal with fd shrtage/take gd care f plants.
(F)66. seven, were
67. Tea has been a ppular drink in China fr thusands f years/Tea (Biling tea) has a lng histry in China.
68. hanfu/wearing hanfu
69. B
70.slw(er); (mre) cmfrtable; relaxing, quiet; peaceful(写出两个即可)
V.书面表达(本题共15分,其中A、5分,B、10分)
Bys and girls,
Our schl will hld a graduatin ceremny n June 21 in the schl hall. It will start at 3:30 in the afternn. Each student needs t prepare sme wrds t say t the classmates r teachers. Please wear schl unifrms and attend the ceremny n time
Student UninA. Als it’s quite near.
B. Yes, f curse.
C. Hw far is it?
D. D I need t take a bus?
E. Hw can I get there?
F. That’s all right
A. Be friendly t thers B. Have cmmunicatin C. Dress prperly
D. Accept differences E. Keep clean and tidy F. Jin clubs
FIVE ▲ ABOUT
SLEEP
Sleep is extremely imprtant t peple f all ages. Sleep deprivatin(睡眠缺失) can affect ur ability t wrk and study.
①Hw many hurs f sleep d we need each day?
Newbms: 14-17
Teenagers: 8-10
Adults: 7-9
Elderly adults: 7-8
②Tiredness usually peaks(达到高峰) twice a day, at 2 a.m. and 2 p.m.
③If yu fall asleep within 5 minutes, yu are shrt f sleep.
The ideal time is between 10 and 15 minutes.
④Peple can make terrible mistakes if they dn’t get enugh sleep.
A lack f sleep played a rle in accidents, such as
●the Exxn Valdez il spill
●the Challenger space shuttle disaster
●the Chembyl nuclear accident
⑤Adult humans sleep abut 3 hurs less than ther primates(灵长类动物).
Mnkeys and babns sleep arund 10 hurs a day.
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