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    江西省上进联考2023-2024学年高一下学期期末调研检测英语

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    江西省上进联考2023-2024学年高一下学期期末调研检测英语

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    这是一份江西省上进联考2023-2024学年高一下学期期末调研检测英语,共17页。
    2023—2024学年高一年级下学期期末调研测试
    高 一 英 语 试 卷
    试卷共8页,67小题,满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
    注意事项:
    1.考查范围:必修第三册全册。
    2.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号等填写在答题卡指定位置上。
    3.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
    4.考生必须保持答题卡的整洁。考试结束后,请将答题卡交回。
    第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30 分)
    做题时,先将答案标在试卷上,录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
    第一节 (共5 小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
    例:Hw much is the shirt?
    A.£19.15. B.£9.18. C.£9.15.
    答案是 C。
    1. What is the weather like nw?
    A. Cld. B. Ht. C. Warm.
    2. What is Steven ding?
    A. Gathering firewd. B. Having dinner. C. Preparing meat.
    3. Wh des the man want t call?
    A. Tm. B. His secretary. C. The wman.
    4. Hw will the speakers g t the cinema?
    A. On ft. B. By car. C. By bus.
    5. What is the cnversatin mainly abut?
    A. An expressin. B. The Internet. C. A cmpetitin.
    第二节 (共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
    听下面5段对话或独白,每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第6段材料,回答第6、7题。
    6. Where des the man want t g this afternn?
    A. The schl. B. The tennis club. C. Jerry's huse.
    7. Hw many dgs des Jerry have?
    A. One. B. Tw. C. Fur.
    听第7 段材料,回答第8、9 题。
    8. When did the wman start t learn painting?
    A. In early January this year. B. In early Octber last year. C. In late Octber last year.
    9. What des the wman say abut painting?
    A. It's a way t reduce pressure.
    B. It makes her feel mre cnfident.
    C. It requires enugh patience.
    听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
    10. What did the man d last night?
    A. He drank a lt f cffee.
    B. He bught sme CDs nline.
    C. He stayed up all night.
    11. Wh is the wman?
    A. The man's bss. B. The man's mther. C. The man's daughter.
    12. What kind f business will the man run?
    A. An nline shp. B. A bkshp. C. A mvie cmpany.
    听第9段材料,回答第13 至16题。
    13. What are the speakers ging t d first?
    A. Meet the man's manager. B. Buy sme flwers. C. Visit their new huse.
    14. What des the man think f the huse?
    A. It's a little ld. B. It's very large. C. It has n balcny.
    15. What des the wman want t grw at first?
    A. Flwers. B. Vegetables. C. Trees.
    16. What flwers d the speakers plan t buy?
    A. Flwers that are cheap.
    B. Flwers that are beautiful.
    C. Flwers that are easy t grw.
    听第10段材料,回答第17 至20题。
    17. What des the speaker say abut running?
    A. It is a sprt with lw cst.
    B. It attracts fewer peple than befre.
    C. It is the mst ppular in Australia.
    18. What benefit f running is talked abut?
    A. Reducing stress. B. Lwering bld sugar. C. Keeping healthy weight.
    19. Hw can we d t get the benefits accrding t the research?
    A. By running lng distance. B. By running very fast. C. By running every tw days.
    20. Which is prbably the best speed fr running?
    A.5 km/h. B.10 km/h. C.15 km/h.
    第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分50分)
    第一节 (共15 小题;每小题2.5 分,满分37.5分)
    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
    A
    Thailand's fur train jurneys
    If yu're nt in a rush, yu can take trains t travel arund Thailand. Here are the fur best train jurneys in the cuntry.
    Mahachai Line
    Start: Thnburi; End: Samut Sngkhram
    Start at Thnburi's Wngwian Yai train statin, just acrss the Cha Phraya River frm Bangkk. Frm the windw, yu can see hmes, temples, shps, palm trees and rice fields. The farmland disappears as yu enter Samut Sakhn. After getting ff and walking thrugh a busy fresh market, yu'll reach a harbr(港口).
    Death Railway
    Start: Thnburi; End: Nam Tk
    Built in the 1940s, the Death Railway is Thailand's mst famus and histric train line. A ttal f688 bridges were built alng the rute(路线). The trains that run the Death Railway are 3rd-class,meaning they have n air-cnditiners and mstly wden benches. It's a turist line, s there're stps fr shrt visits t histrical sites and a cave.
    Beach Train
    Start:Bangkk; End:Hua Hin
    This rute skirts arund the Gulf f Thailand. Yur destinatin, Hua Hin, is Thailand's riginal beach resrt(旅游胜地). The central attractin f the rute is Hua Hin's red-and-white train statin, which was built in 1926. The train is largely respnsible fr Hua Hin's wealth; therefre, the statin is a majr surce f pride.
    Train t Las
    Start:Bangkk; End: Thanaleng
    Starting frm Bangkk in the afternn, this rute crsses the Mekng River int Las. In the mrning, with warm sunlight streaming int yur bed, yu'll pass by the tiny villages and seemingly endless rice fields. After a stp in Nng Khai, yu'll crss the s-called Friendship Bridge t Las.
    21. What can be learned abut Mahachai Line?
    A. Its destinatin is a busy fresh market.
    B. It is the shrtest turist line in Thailand.
    C. It prvides yu with gd views alng the line.
    D. Its starting statin is a ppular turist attractin.
    22. What d Death Railway and Beach Train have in cmmn?
    A. They allw yu t enjy sea views.
    B. They can give yu a sense f histry.
    C. They make yu experience the lcal life.
    D. They stp fr a few mments at histrical sites.
    23. Which is the destinatin fr Train t Las?
    A. Bangkk. B. Nng Khai.
    C. Hua Hin. D. Thanaleng.
    B
    A grup f freigners visited Weihai, a castal city, t explre what the rising star in China's turism market can ffer.
    Driven by scial media and shrt vide platfrms, Weihai's turism industry saw a huge grwth, with the city f just 2.92 millin residents welcming ver 59 millin visits.
    Their first stp is the Dngchu Island in Rngcheng, a cunty-level city in Weihai, where the scenery is characterized by the regin's unique seaweed-rfed huses. “I've never seen a rf made f seaweed. I can't believe my eyes at the huses,” said Nick I’ve, a British editr.
    The grup then visited the Sanggu Bay Marine Ranch(海洋牧场), a ht family-friendly turist destinatin t experience marine farming. “Visiting Sanggu Bay Marine Ranch was a pleasant experience because I culd see and experience firsthand hw the sea fishes are kept,” said Desca LydiaNatalia, a jurnalist with Antara, Indnesia's natinal news agency. “This experience nt nly increased my understanding but als prvided enjyment, as I culd directly eat clams(蛤蜊) freshly harvested frm the sea. I even had the pprtunity t feed the seagulls.”
    Sanggu Bay Marine Ranch receives abut 80,000 visitrs every year since it was established in2015. Visiting the marine ranch has becme ne f the must-ds in Weihai.
    Desca said that her favrite experience was living in a hmestay in Weihai. “While staying in a htel is cmfrtable, a hmestay ffers a different experience, especially since the yard is large and full f flwers, making it feel like hme. S I chse a hmestay,” said the Indnesian jurnalist. The hmestay Decca chse is just a stne's thrw away frm the beach. Desca said that her cuntry is a maritime cuntry and als has many hmestays. “S when I stayed in the hmestay, the atmsphere reminded me f Indnesia,” she added.
    24. What cntributes t Weihai's grwing turism industry?
    A. Scial media. B. Visits f freigners.
    C. Friendly residents. D. Beautiful scenery.
    25. Hw did Nick I’ve feel abut the seaweed-rfed huses?
    A. Grateful. B. Frightened. C. Frtunate. D. Surprised.
    26. What did Decca d at the Sanggu Bay Marine Ranch?
    A. She kept sea fishes. B. She fed seagulls.
    C. She harvested clams. D. She surfed in the sea.
    27. Why did Decca chse the hmestay?
    A. It felt like her hme.
    B. It was near the beach.
    C. Its yard was small and neat.
    D. Its living cnditins were super.
    C
    Blnde chclate is nt as ppular as milk, dark, and white chclate, but it has already been knwn as ne f the mst wnderful variatins(变种) f white chclate ever created.
    The histry f blnde chclate can date back t the year 2004 when French chef Frederic Bau was busy shwing ff his skills during an exhibitin in Japan. He was s absrbed in his shw that he left his white chclate melting in a bain-marie(蒸锅) fr fur days. When he finally gt back t it, the chclate had becme pale brwn and had a very special smell and taste. Frederic quickly came t realize the ptential f his discvery, and blnde chclate was brn.
    He knew he was n his way t smething when he tasted blnde chclate fr the first time. Hwever, because the treat was technically the result f an accident, there was n way t prduce the result again, at least nt immediately. The French chef spent the next seven years experimenting and perfecting the prcess, t make sure that he prduced the best blnde chclate every time.
    Since 2012, blnde chclate has been sld by French chclater Vlrhna under the name Dulcey, but even thugh it has made quite an impressin n the experts in the years since, blnde chclate is still nt a mainstream(主流的) dessert. That is mainly because French lawmakers refuse t recgnize the sweet treat as a furth type f chclate. Instead, they recgnize it a variatin f white chclate.
    Blnde chclate shares a similar stry with anther unique dessert, Ruby chclate, the naturally pink chclate made with Ruby cca beans. In 2017, it was called “the biggest innvatin in chclate in 80 years”. Therefre, there is n need t wrry abut the future f blnde chclate.
    28. What des the secnd paragraph mainly talk abut?
    A. The rigin f blnde chclate. B. The design f blnde chclate.
    C. The imprtance f blnde chclate. D. The prcess f making blnde chclate.
    29. Why d peple seldm chse blnde chclate as a mainstream dessert?
    A. It is refused by mst f French experts.
    B. It is nt as delicius as ther sweet treat.
    C. It is nt warmly welcmed by yung peple.
    D. It is recgnized as a variatin f white chclate.
    30. Why des the authr mentin Ruby chclate in the last paragraph?
    A. T present the misfrtune f Ruby chclate.
    B. T dubt a grwing cncern abut chclate.
    C. T shw a prmising future f blnde chclate.
    D. T criticize public attitude twards blnde chclate.
    31. What might be a suitable title fr the text?
    A. Peple's Thughts twards Blnde Chclate
    B. Blnde Chclate, Anther Type f Sweet Dessert
    C. The Uncmmn Develpment f Blnde Chclate
    D. Blnde Chclate, a Delicius Treat Created by Mistake
    D
    A private cmpany is wrking with the American space agency NASA t develp a new rcket that culd greatly reduce space travel times. The engine fr such a rcket will be designed t sharply increase the amunt f frce t speed up space travel and imprve rcket efficiency.
    The new design, called Pulsed Plasma Rcket ( PPR), is being develped by Arizna-based cmpany Hwe Industries. The cmpany is currently in the early stages f studying the technlgy befre building wrking engine mdels.
    In a recent statement, Hwe Industries said such rcket technlgy will be needed t shre up NASA's plans t send humans t the mn and after that, pssibly Mars. The space agency has als set a gal t build a lng-term base in space. But ne barrier t all these plans is the lng travel times necessary with current spacecraft systems. Fr example, a trip t Mars with existing spacecraft wuld take at least 200 days each way. Develpers f the prpsed Pulsed Plasma Rcket have said it culd reduce travel time t the Red Planet t abut tw mnths each way.
    Hwe Industries said its new design gives the rcket the ability t reach extremely high speeds t cmplete“ reasnable” space travel times. NASA has described its Space Launch System(SLS) as the mst pwerful ever built. The agency has said the SLS rcket system is expected t prvide nearly 53 N f frce during space travel. Develpers f PPR say that in additin t a huge increase in frce, the new design will prvide a “specific impulse(推力)”rate f 5,000. The higher this rate is, the mre efficient the rcket system will be.
    The team said if chsen by NASA t cntinue with Phase(阶段) Ⅱ, it will be centered n imprving the perfrmance f the prpsed engine, as well as carrying ut experiments n majr engine systems. The last phase will invlve cmpleting a spaceship design fr carrying humans t Mars.
    32. What is the new rcket fr?
    A. Lading heavy items.
    B. Prmting space turism.
    C. Shrtening the traveling time t space.
    D. Prviding energy fr a lng-term space base.
    33. What des the underlined phrase “shre up” in paragraph 3 mean?
    A. Supprt. B. Reject. C. Reflect. D. Claim.
    34. Why are the figures mentined in paragraph 4?
    A. T tell the rcket's unique structure.
    B. T prve the rcket's ptential pwer.
    C. T uncver the rcket's pssible risks.
    D. T shw the rcket's tugh develpment.
    35. What des the last paragraph suggest?
    A. The engine entered the secnd phase.
    B. The engine met the requirement f NASA.
    C. The team planned the rcket's further imprvement.
    D. The team are wrried abut the future f the rcket.
    第二节 (共5 小题;每小题2.5分,满分12.5分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
    Develping yur persnality starts with understanding yurself. Find ut what traits(特点) yu see in yurself t get imprved. By understanding mre abut yurself, yu can let yur gd qualities shine thrugh.
    Write dwn five persnality traits abut yurself. 36 Write them dwn and use a few sentences t describe why yu think they apply t yu. Make sure at least ne psitive persnality trait is listed.
    37 When yu wrte dwn these persnality traits, did yu seem t fcus n mstly psitive r mstly negative traits? If yu are nly seeing negative traits in yurself, yu need find ways t build yur cnfidence. If yu nly mentined ne negative trait, yu shuld cnsider evaluating(评估) yur limits in a healthy way.
    Identify activities yu enjy. If yu are nt sure abut hw t develp yur persnality, think abut what makes yu happy. What activities d yu enjy? 38 Are yu mre artistic r scientific? D yu like t spend time with thers r d mre things n yur wn? There are n right r wrng answers abut which activities make yu a happier persn. 39
    Be pen t new experiences. While it may feel cmfrtable t d the same ld things yu always d, cnsider trying ther things because it makes yurself understd better. Yu may be shy r unsure if it will g well. 40 New experiences are what get yu ut f yur cmfrt zne. They dn't necessarily have t be risky adventures that put yu in danger.
    A. Find yur cnfidence.
    B. Evaluate the psitive and negative.
    C. D yu like fixing r creating things?
    D. List sme characteristics that yu have.
    E. What d yu want t see differently in yurself?
    F. This is just a way t figure ut what makes yu happy.
    G. Actually, things aren't as bad as yu imagine them t be.
    第三部分 语言运用(共两节,满分30分)
    第一节 (共15 小题;每小题1分,满分15 分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
    Last year I mved t a new city with my husband and daughter. S during the first mnths we were busy getting 41 . This place is very different frm where I lived befre and we had a lt f 42 .
    Then things were running 43 due t ur effrts. S we decided t cnduct a small ceremny at hme in 44 f ur success in adjusting t the new life. After the simple ceremny, we still had sme fd 45 . Our daughter suggested that she g with her father and lk fr smene wh 46 all these fd.
    Hearing the 47 f my daughter, my husband ffered t take her in his car t the nearby areas. But after a lng time, they 48 t find a suitable ne. They were abut t return hme suddenly when my daughter 49 an ld man sitting under a tree. He lked 50 , tired and anxius.
    My husband stpped the car and my daughter 51 the man and handed him the fd packets. The surprised persn lked at my daughter and asked if thse items were fr him. When he listened t the 52 answer, he smiled, thanked my daughter a lt and started eating. After a shrt chat with the man, they went back hme happily. The 53 n my daughter's face made me feel 54 a hungry human was a crrect thing. It added t ur happiness—I had the 55 t cnduct an act f kindness.
    41. A. changed B. cngratulated C. cmplained D. settled
    42. A. dubting B. adapting C. deciding D. frgetting
    43. A. smthly B. passively C. secretly D. regularly
    44. A. place B. case C. face D. celebratin
    45. A. tuched B. exchanged C. left D. eaten
    46. A. harvested B. srted C. needed D. brught
    47. A. advice B. request C. news D. faith
    48. A. failed B. tended C. attempted D. planned
    49. A. passed B. called C. ignred D. sptted
    50. A. hungry B. pleased C. graceful D. charming
    51. A. turned dwn B. prvided fr C. tripped ver D. headed t
    52. A. disappinting B. satisfying C. fatal D. flexible
    53. A. frwn B. smile C. despair D. anxiety
    54. A. hugging B. permitting C. feeding D. replacing
    55. A. determinatin B. frtune C. ptin D. energy
    第二节 (共10小题;每小题1.5 分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    A cllectin f themed exhibitins greeted the public t celebrate this year's Cultural and Natural Heritage Day 56 June 8 by the China Intangible (无形的) Cultural Heritage Museum. The exhibitin had an 57 (intend) t raise awareness abut the prtectin f intangible cultural heritage, prmte traditinal Chinese culture 58 develp a supprtive scial envirnment.
    The exhibitin was divided int three distinct parts. One f the excellent parts centered n the prtectin and cntinuity f intangible cultural heritage prjects frm 2013 t March 2024, which shwed China's prgress in 59 (prtect) intangible cultural heritage.
    The exhibitin featured interactive(互动的) znes, multimedia presentatins, and perfrmances by100 natinal intangible cultural heritage inheritrs(继承者). The exhibitin was expected 60 (prvide) a rich experience fr visitrs. As 61 result, a clud exhibitin, led by varius nline
    platfrms, 62 (launch), attracting wider public attentin t the diverse intangible cultural heritage 63 (practice) in daily life.
    Furthermre, a phtgraphy exhibitin themed “Beautiful Life in Intangible Cultural Heritage” fcused n the 64 ( benefit) impact f intangible cultural heritage in advancing verall ecnmic and scial develpment. 65 (eventual ), the exhibitin met the needs f the public fr an imprved quality f life.
    第四部分 写作(共两节,满分40分)
    第一节 (满分 15 分)
    你校英文报正在举办主题为“The Best Chice I Have Made”的征文活动。请你用英语写一篇短文投稿,内容包括:
    1.你的经历;
    2.你的感悟。
    注意:1.写作词数应为80 左右;
    2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
    The Best Chice I Have Made


    第二节 (满分25 分)
    阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
    “Mm,” I said, “I've been nminated(提名) fr the Natinal Junir Hnr Sciety.” My mther gave me a sweet smile and cngratulated me. “I'm s prud f yu,” she tld me.
    Then it was time fr me t fill ut the applicatin. Mm accmpanied me in the family rm and saw the prcess. I had t prve that I had all the characteristics required in a candidate(候选人):schlarship, leadership, service, character, and s n. The next day, I turned in the paperwrk t the advisr(顾问) and didn't think any mre abut it.
    Mnths went by, I received a letter frm the schl abut the Hnr Sciety. I pened it and surprisingly, it just tld me I failed. I felt shcked and disappinted. As sn as the bus let me ff that afternn, I dragged myself int the huse. My mther was typing at the cmputer. “Mm,” I said sadly, “I didn't make the Hnr Sciety.” She smiled and held up her hand t give me a high five. “Yu are jking.” Suddenly, I felt tears cme frm my eyes. “N, really, they didn't pick me,” I said and handed her the letter.
    “There must be sme mistakes. Dn't wrry and I'll help yu cntact the advisr.” She grabbed the phne and dialed the Hnr Sciety advisr. “Oh, hney, I'm srry. I thught yu were kidding,” my mther said. Hwever, frm the phne, she was tld n mistake was made, and the decisins were final.
    It bthered me why I wasn't chsen. It was really hurting me because nearly all f my friends were chsen fr the Hnr Sciety. I seemed t becme the wrst ne and I felt painful and sad.
    注意:
    1.续写词数应为150 左右;
    2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
    My mther shared a stry f her friend wh had the same experience.



    I smiled and made up my mind t make a change.



    2023—2024 学年高一年级下学期期末调研测试
    高一英语参考答案及评分细则
    听力材料
    Text 1
    M: I think I'm getting a cld.
    W: Yu have stayed in this rm fr t lng. Just g ut and catch sme fresh air.
    M: Are yu kidding? The sun is burning everything ut there.
    Text 2
    W: Steven is just gathering firewd. Let's get ur cking tls and then set up the tent.
    M:OK. I'm ging t get the meat, t.
    W: It'll be the mst unfrgettable camp we've had.
    Text 3
    M: I have t phne my secretary befre we leave.
    W: There's nt much time. I'll get Tm t phne yur secretary fr yu.
    Text 4
    W: Let's leave hme at six 'clck. The mvie starts at seven. Are we walking there?
    M: N, it might rain. And it's difficult t find a place t park the car there. S we can take the bus.
    W:OK.
    Text 5
    W: D yu knw the ppular expressin “the Rat Race” n the Internet?
    M: Abslutely, many cllege students use it t refer t fierce internal cmpetitin.
    W: Hw cl the expressin is!
    Text 6
    M: Mum, Jerry will drive me t the tennis club this afternn.
    W: Oh, Jerry? The dg lver, Jerry?
    M: Yes, he has raised fur dgs. They are lvely.
    W: Well, I dn't knw abut it.
    Text 7
    M:Oh, what a beautiful painting! Did yu d that?
    W: Yes, I've been taking painting classes every Saturday since early Octber last year.
    M: Oh, it's nly early January. I didn't expect yu t learn painting fr such a shrt time. I thught yu'd been painting fr years.
    W: Thanks.
    M: Is it difficult? I always wanted t try it but I didn't knw where t start.
    W: T be hnest, there are a lt f things t learn but part f the fun is just ding it. I mean, it desn't need t be perfect.
    M: Maybe I'll try it.
    W: Yu shuld! And it's a great way t deal with stress.
    Text 8
    W: Wuld yu like sme cffee?
    M: N. I've been up all night. I have t g t bed. I need five hurs t sleep.
    W:S, I guess yu've stpped lking fr a new jb.
    M: Actually, yes. Yur dear sn will run his wn business.
    W: Great, what kind f business?
    M: I decide t have an nline shp. It will mainly sell sme ld clthes, CDs r cartns.
    W: Wuld anyne buy them?
    M: Of curse. It is ppular. I'll advertise it. Yu'll see.
    W:May yu succeed.
    Text 9
    W: Mark, where are we ging?
    M: T a huse. It's just dwn this rad. It's a small place, but at least it wuld be ur wn huse. Didn't I tell yu? It used t be my manager's huse.
    W:A huse? Hw can we affrd t buy a huse?
    M: It isn't very large. We wuldn't have t pay very much right nw. But it needs t be fixed up a bit. We can d that urselves.
    W: Is there a balcny?
    M: Yes. And it is abut ten square meters. That's plenty f space.
    W: Then we can grw sme vegetables. I actually want t plant watermelns. But it desn't seem realistic.
    M: Well, it really isn't big enugh t grw vegetables r watermelns. I think we can try t grw sme flwers.
    W: Flwers? They have t be lked after with great care.
    M: We are used t that kind f wrk, aren't we?
    W: Yes, we are, but d we have enugh time t take care f them?
    M: I think we can buy flwers that are easy t grw, and we can take turns watering them.
    W: OK.
    Text 10
    Hell, everybdy. Tday, I'd like t talk abut running. We all knw that it's free, and requires n equipment and the scenery n the rad can be attractive—it's n wnder that running is amng the wrld's mst ppular sprts. The number f runners in Australia has dubled frm 2006 t 2014. Nw mre than 1.35 millin Australians run fr fun and exercise. Research has fund running helps t reduce the risk f being verweight, heart disease and cancer. Hwever, yu dn't have t run fast r far t get the benefits. We fund that running just fr abut 50 minutes a week is OK. This is gd news fr thse wh dn't have much time fr exercise. But it shuldn't disappint thse wh enjy running lnger and mre ften. We fund that running every tw days r fur hurs a week is als gd t health. But running t fast is nt necessarily better. We fund the best benefits fr running at any speed between 8 and 13 km/h. It might be that running at yur wn “mst cmfrtable speed” is the best fr yur health.
    1--5 BABCA 6-10 BCBAC 11-15BACAB 16-20 CACCB
    A
    本文是一篇应用文。文章主要介绍了泰国的四条火车旅行路线。
    21. C 细节理解题。根据 Mahachai Line 部分的“Frm the windw, yu can see hmes, temples, shps, palm trees and rice fields. The farmland disappears as yu enter Samut Sakhn.”可知, Mahachai Line 能让你将沿线美景尽收眼底。
    22. B 细节理解题。根据Death Railway 部分的“Built in the 1940s, the Death Railway is Thailand’s mst famus and histric train line ”“there’re stps fr shrt visits t histrical sites”和 Beach Train 部分的“The central attractin f the rute is Hua Hin's red-and-white train statin, which was built in 1926.”可知,这两条路线可以给你一种历史感。
    23. D 细节理解题。根据 Train t Las部分的“Start: Bangkk; End: Thanaleng”可知, Train t Las这趟列车的目的地(终点站)是 Thanaleng。
    B
    本文是一篇新闻报道。文章主要介绍了几个外国人在威海体验生活的感受。
    24.A 细节理解题。根据第二段可知因为社交媒体和短视频的驱动,威海的旅游业得以飞速发展。故答案选择 A。
    25. D 推理判断题。根据第三段“I can’t believe my eyes at the huses”可推知 Nick I’ve 对于以海草为屋顶的房子感到惊讶。
    26. B 细节理解题。根据第四段“I even had the pprtunity t feed the seagulls.”可知Desca在农场获得了喂海鸥的机会。
    27. A 细节理解题。根据最后一段“… since the yard is large and full f flwers, making it feel like hme. S I chse a hmestay”可知因为院子里充满了花,它像家一样,所以 Desca选择了家庭寄宿这种方式。故答案选择A。
    本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了金黄巧克力的由来、发展历史和前景。
    28. A 段落大意题。根据第二段的“The histry f blnde chclate can date back t the year 2004 when French chef Frederic Bau was busy shwing ff his skills during an exhibitin in Japan... f his discvery”可知第二段主要介绍了金黄巧克力的由来。故答案选 A 项。
    29. D 细节理解题。根据第四段的“That is mainly because French lawmakers refuse t recgnize the sweet treat as a furth type f chclate. Instead, they recgnize it a variatin f white chclate.”可知,金黄巧克力没有成为主流甜点,主要是因为法国官方认为它并不属于第四种巧克力类型,而是白巧克力的变种。故答案选D 项。
    30. C 推理判断题。根据最后一段的“Therefre, there is n need t wrry abut the future f blnde chclate.”可推知,作者提到红宝石巧克力只是想说明金黄巧克力也有同样的发展前景。故答案选C 项。
    31.D 标题归纳题。本文主要讲的是法国厨师因为意外制作了美味的金黄巧克力,从此金黄巧克力受到人们的青睐。比较选项可知,D项最适合作为本文标题。
    D
    本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了一家公司与NASA 合作研发出能缩减从地球到达月球或火星的时间的新火箭。
    32. C 细节理解题。根据第一段“develp a new rcket that culd greatly reduce space travel times”可知新的火箭能大大地减少太空旅行时间。故答案选择C。
    33. A 词义猜测题。根据上文提到Hw e Industries 公司与NASA 合作,可知此处表示能够支撑NASA 的计划。故答案选择 A。
    34.B 推理判断题。根据第四段的内容可推知,提到与推力和推力速度相关的数据是为了证明新火箭拥有巨大的推力,所以可知答案选择 B。
    35.C 细节理解题。最后一段该团队介绍了火箭第二阶段与第三阶段的计划,所以答案选择C。
    本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了如何了解自己从而培养自己的性格。
    36. D 衔接句。本段的中心是写下关于自己的5个性格特点,所以选择D,选项中“sme characteristics”吻合主题句,并且与下文“them”对应。
    37. B 主旨句。根据下文“fcus n mstly psitive r mstly negative traits”以及本段中 if 引导的两个条件状语从句可知本段的中心是评估积极与消极的性格特征。
    38.C 衔接句。本段的中心是识别你喜欢的活动。选项C 中“like”吻合中心,与上下文构成并列关系。
    39. F 衔接句。选项F中“figure ut what makes yu happy”吻合中心句的语义。
    40. G 衔接句。选项G 中“things aren’t as bad as yu imagine them t be”吻合上文“unsure if it will g well”。本文是一篇记叙文。文章主要讲述了作者一家人给一个老人食物后收获了快乐的故事。
    41. D 根据上文“I mved t a new city...”可知此处表示一直忙着安顿下来。
    42. B 根据下文“ur success in adjusting t the new life”可知我们成功适应了新的生活,所以此处语义是我们有诸多需要适应的地方。故选择B。
    43.A 此处表示事情进展得很顺利,吻合下文的庆祝成功适应新的生活。
    44. D 根据下文的“ceremny”以及成功适应新的生活可知此处答案选择D。
    45.C 根据语境可知此处选择“剩下的”,表示庆祝完后还有一些食物剩下。
    46.C 此处表示作者的女儿建议将食物分给需要食物的人。
    47. A 根据上文“suggested”可知此处答案选择A。
    48.A 根据下文作者的丈夫和女儿准备回家可知,此处的语义是他们没有找到合适的人。
    49.D 根据下文作者的丈夫停车可知此处表示作者的女儿发现了一个在树下的老人。
    50.A 根据下文并列的形容词可知此处表示老人看上去很饿,故答案选择A,吻合下文老人吃作者的女儿递给他的食物。
    51.D 此处表示作者的女儿朝那位老人走去,吻合下文作者的女儿递给他食物。head t 语义是“朝……走去”。
    52.B 此处表示老人听到了想听到的答案,对比选项,所以选择B,表示“令人满意的”答案。
    53. B 根据下文“happiness”可知此处指作者的女儿脸上露出的笑容。
    54.C 根据上文作者的女儿给老人食物可知此处答案选择C。feed语义是“喂养,提供食物”。
    55. B 此处语义是作者有了这次做好事的机会。frtune语义是“运气,机会”。
    本文是一篇说明文。文章主要介绍了为庆祝今年的文化和自然遗产日举办的相关主题展览。
    56. n 考查介词。具体某一天用介词n。
    57. intentin 考查词性转换。根据空前冠词“an”可知此处用名词形式。
    58. and 考查连词。空格后“develp”与上文动词“raise” “prmte”构成并列关系。
    59. prtecting 考查非谓语动词。根据空格前介词“in”可知此处用动名词ing 形式。
    60. t prvide 考查非谓语动词。此处考查短语be expected t d sth.语义是“被期待做某事”。
    61. a 考查冠词。此处考查固定短语 as a result 语义是“结果”。
    62. was launched 考查时态语态。此处是谓语形式,提示词与主语“a clud exhibitin”之间是被动关系;且根据时间可知,展览发生在过去,故此处用一般过去时的被动语态。
    63. practices 考查名词复数。根据提示词前的“diverse”可知此处用名词的复数形式。
    64. beneficial 考查形容词。此处形容词修饰名词impact,故填 beneficial。
    65. Eventually 考查副词。此处提示词修饰整个句子,所以用副词形式。
    One pssible versin:
    The Best Chice I Have Made
    When it cmes t the best chice that I have made, a running race cmes int my mind. I still remember hw I felt breathless and my legs were wrn ut n the half way f the race. I was abut t give up when I heard my friends cheering me n. Eventually, I chse t cntinue running. It turned ut that it was the best chice that I've made. Nt nly did I make it t the finish line but als I realize that nly with persistence will I achieve success. Thanks t the chice, my willpwer has been strengthened and I'm cnvinced I can vercme whatever life thrws at me.
    One pssible versin:
    My mther shared a stry f her friend wh had the same experience. The stry was abut a high schl friend f hers. He was intelligent and had a gd heart, but fr sme reasn he wasn't chsen fr the Natinal Junir Hnr Sciety. But many years later, he became a wrld specialist wh treated lung cancer and he saved lives every day. After the stry, my mther tld me nt being a member f the hnr sciety wasn't ging t ruin my future. Tuched by the stry and her wrds, I felt relieved suddenly.
    I smiled and made up my mind t make a change. After all, what was mre imprtant was that a bright future was likely t await me. It was time t let g f the painful experience. I made up my mind t devte myself t studying hard as well as imprving myself. Everything seemed smth gradually. I became the best student t graduate frm the middle schl and be admitted t my dream university. Lking back n the experience, I fund the lessn that my mther taught me ccurred t my mind again.
    应用文写作评分标准
    一、评分原则
    1.本题总分为15 分,按五个档次进行评分。
    2.评分时,应主要从内容组织、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑。具体为:
    (1)对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
    (2)使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
    (3)上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
    3.评分时,先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
    4.评分时还应注意:
    (1)词数少于60 的,从总分中减去2分。
    (2)单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面,评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
    (3)书写较差以致影响交际的,将分数降低一个档次。
    二、内容要点
    1.你的经历;
    2.你的感悟。
    三、各档次的给分范围和要求
    读后续写评分标准
    一、评分原则
    1.本题总分为25分,按5 个档次给分。
    2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
    3.词数少于130,从总分中减去2分。
    4.评分时,应主要从以下四个方面考虑:
    (1)与所给短文及段落开头语的衔接程度;
    (2)内容的丰富性;
    (3)应用语法结构和词汇的丰富性和准确性;
    (4)上下文的连贯性。
    5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
    6.如书写较差以致影响交际,可将分数降低一个档次。
    二、各档次的给分范围和要求
    第五档
    (13-15 分)
    完全完成了试题规定的任务,达到了预期的写作目的。
    —覆盖所有内容要点。
    一应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
    一语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致;具备较强的语言运用能力。一有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
    第四档
    (10-12分)
    完成了试题规定的任务,达到了预期的写作目的。
    一虽漏掉1、2 个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
    一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
    —语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
    一应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
    第三档
    (7-9 分)
    基本完成了试题规定的任务,整体而言,基本达到了预期的写作目的。
    一虽漏掉一些内容,但覆盖所有主要内容。
    一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
    一有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
    一应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
    第二档
    (4-6分)
    未恰当完成试题规定的任务,信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
    一漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
    —语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
    一有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
    一较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。
    第一档
    (1-3分)
    未完成试题规定的任务,信息未能传达给读者。
    一明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
    —语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
    一较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
    一缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
    0分
    未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判;
    写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
    档次
    描述
    第五档
    (21-25 分)
    —与所给短文融洽度高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理。
    —内容丰富。
    —所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但完全不影响意义表达。
    —有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
    第四档
    (16-20分)
    —与所给短文融洽度较高,与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理。
    —内容比较丰富。
    —所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确,可能有些许错误,但不影响意义表达。
    —比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,使所续写短文结构紧凑。
    第三档
    (11-15分)
    一与所给短文关系较为密切,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
    —写出了若干有关内容。
    —应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求,虽有一些错误,但不影响意义表达。
    —应用简单的语句间连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
    第二档
    (6-10分)
    —与所给短文有一定的关系,与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接。
    —写出了一些有关内容。
    —语法结构单调,词汇项目有限,有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误,影响了意义的表达。
    一较少使用语句间的连接成分,全文内容缺少连贯性。
    第一档
    (1-5分)
    —与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差。
    —产出内容太少。
    —语法结构单调,词汇项目很有限,有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误,严重影响了意义的表达。—缺乏语句间的连接成分,全文内容不连贯。
    0分
    白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。

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