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    四川省南充市2023-2024学年七年级下学期7月期末英语试题

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    这是一份四川省南充市2023-2024学年七年级下学期7月期末英语试题,共9页。


    注意事项:1. 考试时间120分钟,试卷满分150分。
    2.答题前将姓名、座位号、准考证号填在答题卡指定位置。
    3.所有解答内容均需涂、写在答题卡上。
    4.选择题须用2B铅笔将答题卡相应题号对应选项涂黑,若需改动,须擦净另涂。
    5.非选择题在答题卡对应题号位置用0.5毫米黑色字迹笔书写。
    第一部分:听(共两节;满分 30 分)
    第一节 (共5 小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    听下面5段短对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
    1. What is Cindy ding?
    A. Ding hmewrk. B. Reading a newspaper. C. Cleaning the huse.
    2. What des the girl want t d?
    A. T write a stry. B. T draw a picture. C. T take a pht.
    3. What's the relatinship(关系) between the tw speakers?
    A. Mther and sn. B. Waitress and custmer. C. Teacher and student.
    4. Where is Alice prbably nw?
    A. In the music center. B. At the ld peple's hme.C. In the supermarket.
    5. Which is the right map fr the man?
    第二节 (共15小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分22.5分)
    听下面5段长对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第6段材料,回答第6至第7两个小题。现在你有10秒钟的时间阅读下面两个小题。
    6. What des Carl smetimes d after schl?
    A. Plays ping-png. B. Ges swimming. C. Plays the guitar.
    7. Hw many clubs des Judy jin this term?
    A. One. B. Tw. C. Three.
    听第7段材料,回答第8至第10三个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读下面三个小题。
    8. Where des Mary's mther wrk?
    A. In a schl. B. At a radi statin. C. In a stre.
    9. When des Mary's father g t wrk?
    A. At 7:45. B. At 8:00. C. At 8:15.
    10. Wh usually exercises n Saturdays?
    A. Mary's father. B. Mary's mther. C. Mary.
    听第8段材料,回答第11至第 13三个小题。现在你有15秒钟的时间阅读下面三个小题。
    11. Hw's the weather in Shanghai tday?
    A. Rainy. B. Cludy. C. Sunny.
    12. Hw did Je g t the museum yesterday?
    A. By bus. B. By bike. C. By car.
    13. Hw lng did it take Je t g t the museum?
    A. Ten minutes. B. Twenty minutes. C. Frty minutes.
    听第9段材料,回答第 14至第16三个小题。现在你有 15秒钟的时间阅读下面三个小题。
    14. What des David lk like?
    A. He has straight black hair.B. He has big brwn eyes. C. He has straight brwn hair.
    15. What sprts d they like?
    A. Basketball. B. Vlleyball. C. Ftball.
    16. Why des Sam think David is his gd friend ?
    A. Because he is gd at sprts.
    B. Because he always helps and listens t Sam.
    C. Because he is fun ny and tells gd jkes.
    听第10段材料,回答第17至第20四个小题,现在你有20秒钟的时间阅读下面四个小题。
    17. What is Max's neighbrhd like?
    A. Small but clean. B. Big and quiet. C. Big and clean.
    18. Where is the park?
    A. Next t Max's huse.
    B. Behind the sprts center.
    C. Between a bkstre and a supermarket.
    19. What is the best place fr Max in the neighbrhd?
    A. The park. B. The sprts center. C. The supermarket.
    20. Which is TRUE abut Max?
    A. He ften has lunch at a Chinese restaurant.
    B. He exercises in the park every evening.
    C. He reads and swims in his free time.
    第二部分:读 (共三节;满分70分)
    第一节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
    先通读下面短文,掌握其大意,然后从短文后面各题所给的A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
    A
    A lng time ag, a man called Zhang San wrked hard and saved much mney. He was very happy, but he was afraid smene wuld steal (偷) it 21 him. Finally he had a gd idea. He dug a hle(挖洞) and put all his 22 in it. He is s 23 that he put a nte near the place saying“N 300 tael f silver(银两) here”. Unluckily, his neighbr Wang Er saw what happened. By the midnight, he 24 all the mney. But he was afraid Zhang San wuld knw. Then he 25 a nte, t, and it said“Yur neighbr Wang Er didn't d that.”
    21. A. fr B. after C. near D. frm
    22. A. idea B. mney C. neighbr D. nte
    23. A. wrried B. happy C. lucky D. bred
    24. A. thught f B. put up C. tk away D. cleaned up
    25. A. fund B. gt C. tk D. left
    B
    Je, a naughty(淘气的) by, is six years ld. His mther says he 26 play in the yard(院子) and shuldn't g acrss the street.
    One day when Je was playing sccer with Timmy, the ball rlled acrss the street. Je knew he shuldn't leave the yard. 27 he thught it wuld nly take him ne minute t get the ball back.S he ran ut f the yard.
    When he was ging t get the 28 , he heard a nise ——a car came behind him. Just then his mther came ut. She lked 29 .“Get ut f the street, Je! Right nw!”she shuted.
    Je 30 came back int the yard. Then his mther came up t him.
    “I'm s srry, Mm.”Je cried ludly.
    “Yu are safe nw.”Mm said.
    “ 31 d I always break the rules? I knw the rules but it's difficult t 32 them.”Je said.
    “At first, peple have a prblem with 33 . Everyne wants t d things in his wn(自己的)way. But when yu knw that rules can 34 yu frm danger, yu will fllw the rules.”Mm said.
    “I learned an imprtant 35 tday. Thank yu, Mm!”Je saId.
    26. A. must B. shuldn't C. will D. culdn't
    27. A. Because B. S C. But D. Befre
    28. A. car B. ball C. nise D. street
    29. A. lucky B. surprised C. different D. happy
    30. A. quickly B. usually C. easily D. really
    31. A. Where B. Why C. Hw D. When
    32. A. make B. stp C. break D. fllw
    33. A. cars B. rules C. drivers D. friends
    34. A. kill B. shw C. save D. interest
    35. A. life B. lessn C. prblem D. jb
    第二节 阅读理解(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
    阅读下面短文,从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
    A
    36. Wh is Alice?
    A. Jane's mther. B. Jane's sister. C. Jane's friend. D. Jane's cusin.
    37. Where des Alice live?
    A. In Australia. B. At Sunny Farm. C. In Canada. D. In Hng Kng.
    38. What is Billy ding?
    A. Taking sme phts. B. Feeding chickens.
    C. Eating fruit. D. Riding a hrse.
    39. What des the underlined“he“refer t ?
    A. Billy. B. Gerge. C. The framer. D. Billy's father.
    40. What can we knw frm the pstcard?
    A. Jane's family are in Australia nw. B. Jane's parents have a sn and a daughter.
    C. Gerge's favrite animal is chickens. D. Alice will g t Canada sn.
    B
    My name is Sadia Khatun. I'm frm Bangladesh (孟加拉).It's difficult t walk n sme rads in the rainy seasn here. S hw d I g t schl? It's easy! The schl cmes t me! Istudy n a“flating schl”.
    My flating schl is a“schl bus”and classrm all in ne. The bat picks me up early in the mrning. Our classrm is n the bat t. There are many bats n the river at the same time. Each bat has ne teacher and ne class. The teacher teaches us all the subjects.
    The bat is lng and wide. We sit at wden(木质的) desks. Big windws bring in lts f sunlight and fresh air. There's a blackbard at the frnt. There's a cmputer next t it, and it gets its pwer frm the sun. At the end f the schl day, the bat takes me hme.
    I learn a lt at my schl and have fun t. I lve my flating schl!
    41. Which f the fllwing things can be flating n the water?
    42. Where des Sadia have classes in the rainy seasn?
    A. On a schl bus. B. On the bat. C. At hme. D. In a wden huse.
    43. Which f the fllwing statements is TRUE?
    A. There are tw teachers n each bat. B. There is n windw n the bat.
    C. There is a cmputer n the bat. D. Sadia sleeps n the bat at night.
    44. What des Sadia think f her flating schl?
    A. It's great. B. It's dark. C. It's dangerus. D. It's small.
    45. What can be the best title fr the passage?
    A. Hw t Get t Schl B. Ging t Schl Is Fun
    C. My Flating Schl D. My Schl Life
    C
    Are yu lking at me? D yu knw me? I am a dd. Yu may think I'm just a character (角色) in the bk Alice's Adventures inWnderland. In fact, there are thusands f us—fr real. But nw yu can nly see us in museums.
    We lived n an island (岛) in the Indian Ocean. In the happy ld days, there was a lt f fd t eat. All the ther animals were friendly. What a happy life!
    In 1598, sme peple arrived. They cut dwn the trees and we lst ur lvely frest. They killed us because we were slw and culdn't fly. What's mre, their pigs, cats and dgs ate ur eggs.Sn there was n dd in the wrld.
    S tday we are standing in museums. When yu see us, please remember ur sad stry. The wrld is full f great animals. Please try yur best t help them.Dn't make them as dead as a dd.
    46. Why is the dd“just a character”t sme readers?
    A. Because they dn't visit museums. B. Because they lve this bk very much.
    C. Because they can't see real dds in life. D. Because there are thusands f dds nw.
    47. What are the reasns(原因) f n dd in the wrld?
    ①There were many animals n the island. ②Dds didn't have a lt f fd t eat.
    ③Peple cut dwn the trees. ④Peple killed dds.
    ⑤Peple's pigs, cats and dgs ate dds'eggs.
    A. ①②③ B. ①③④ C. ②③④ D.③④⑤
    48. Frm the reading, which chart best shws the number f dds?
    Dear Alice,
    It is great fun in Australial We are at Sunny Farm. The weather is great. Mum is standing near sme beautiful flwers. Billy is taking phts f Mum. Gerge is feeding chickens and
    talking with a farmer. He is very nice and he shwed us arund the farm. I am eating fruit and writing pstcards. Where is Dad? Wwl He I s riding a white hrsel Cme and see all f us
    In Canana snl Yur cusin,
    Jane
    Alic e Wang
    Fia b 8·4/F
    Rainbw Curt
    17 Rainbw Sbreeó
    Kwln
    Hng Kng
    49. Which f the fllwing animals is“as dead as a dd”?
    50. What's the purpse(目的) f the passage?
    A. T ask peple t visit the museums. B. T tell us a stry f the dd.
    C. T shw us a famus bk. D. T ask peple t save animals.
    第三节 补全短文 (共5 小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
    阅读短文,根据短文内容,从短文后的六个选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑,选项中有一项为多余选项。
    After a lng busy week, a relaxing weekend can be just what yu want. 51 Here is sme advice fr yu.
    Fllw yur sleep rutine(常规).
    A regular(有规律的) sleep rutine is very imprtant t yu. It's nt gd t sleep as much as yu want n weekends. Adults (成人) usually need 7 t 8 hurs f sleep each night. 52 Of curse, it's OK t get mre sleep if yu stay up late.
    53
    Weekends ffer free time t d things that make yu truly happy. 54 Yu can als g shpping r play a vide game. All these can make yu feel happy and relaxed.
    Hang ut with friends r family.
    Try t plan an utdr activity with the peple yu lve n weekends. Yu can g n a picnic,fly kites r climb a muntain. 55 Many peple like t stay utdrs nw because they enjy fresh air and warm sunshine. Even a 30-minute walk arund yur neighbrhd can be gd!
    A. Make time fr yur favrite things.
    B. Children need t sleep lnger than adults.
    C. S hw can yu enjy yurself n weekends?
    D. It's gd fr yur health and mind.
    E. Weekends are als a gd time t sleep.
    F. Yu can read a bk, watch a sccer game n TV.
    第三部分:写 (共三节;满分50分)
    第一节 单词填空(共5 小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    根据句意和首字母写出所缺单词,并将该单词的完整形式写在答题卡相应的横线上。
    56. I was brn in a small v with nly three hundred peple.
    57. Helen and Jim went n the same trip, but they think abut it d .
    58. They will s abut five years in building the high-speed railway.
    59. These strawberries lk nice and taste d . D yu want t have sme?
    60. Jane's spken English is pretty gd because she ften p it bth in and ut f class.
    第二节 语法填空 (共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的词或括号内所给单词的正确形式,并将答案写在答题卡相应的横线上。
    Challa lives in Ethipia(埃塞俄比亚). When she was abut 16, she 61 (see) a grup f bys skatebarding in a park.“I never tried skatebarding. S I just asked 62 (they) t let me have a try,”she says,“It was fun!”
    At the time, skatebarding was new in Ethipia and the sprt was 63 (usual) male-dminated(男性主宰的). But Challa was 64 (interest) in it and she wanted mre girls 65 (try)skatebarding. S in 2020, she started a club called Ethipian Girl Skaters (EGS). It has free classes fr girls and yung 66 (wman). Everyne in the club cmes frm different backgrunds (背景).67 club is nt just abut skatebarding. Everyne in it helps each ther.
    She thinks skatebarding is a bridge 68 peple t learn frm each ther. When she started skatebarding, there were n girls jining it 69 mst peple think girls shuld stay at hme and they have t help with husewrk every day. But nw it's 70 (get) ppular and she hpes mre peple can feel the happiness.
    第三节 阅读填空(共5 小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
    阅读短文,根据短文内容,在短文后的空格里填入最恰当的单词(每空限填一词),并将答案写在答题卡相应编号后的横线上。
    Fr mst students, daily rutines are different. Here is sme advice n hw t have a gd day.
    Set an alarm (闹钟) befre yu sleep, s yu can prepare fr yur day. Fr middle schl students, it's a gd idea t get up early, s there is n need t rush t yur schl. Als, yu can have enugh time t d what yu plan t d.
    A healthy bdy is imprtant t students. Exercise can help students relax and stay in gd health. Yu can dance, g swimming r even run arund the playgrund.
    Setting gals (目标) fr the day makes yu d yur wrk faster and gives yu a sense f success when yu finish it. Yu can als set lng-term gals fr the week, mnth r term ahead.
    T get better grades, yu shuld think abut what yu have learned tday befre yu g t bed.In this way, yu can keep up with yur subjects and learn them well.
    第四节 书面表达(满分25分)
    假如你是李华,上周六你参观了南充市博物馆,并结交了一位新朋友。请你给英国朋友Mike 写一封邮件分享这次经历,内容如图所示:
    要求: (1)文中不得出现真实姓名和所在学校;
    (2)适当增加细节,使行文连贯,内容充实;
    (3)注意结构完整,过渡自然;
    (4)不少于80词,开头、结尾已给出,不计入总词数。
    Dear Mike,
    I'm writing t tell yu the experience I had last Saturday. I visited Nanchng Museum.
    Lking frward t hearing frm yu!
    Yurs,
    Li HuaSme _71_ n Hw t'Have a Gd Day
    Get up early
    Yu dn't _72_ t rush t yur schl.
    Yu can have enugh time t d what yu plan t d.
    Take sme exercise
    Exercise can help students feel relaxed and stay _73_.
    74_ gals fr the day
    Setting gals makes yu d yur wrk faster and gives yu a sense f success.
    Have a gd study habit
    Think abut what yu have learned tday befre _75_ t bed,then yu can keep up with yur subjects and learn them well.
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