山东省日照市岚山区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末英语试题

这是一份山东省日照市岚山区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末英语试题，共8页。
（满分100分，时间90分钟）
注意事项：
1.本试卷分为第I卷和第II卷两卷，共7页。第I卷为选择题，50分；第II卷为非选择题，50分；共100分，考试时间90分钟。
2.答第I卷前务必将自己的学校、班级、姓名、考号等填写在答题卡内规定位置。
3.请将第I卷选择题的答案（ABCD）涂在答题卡相应序号框内，第II卷的非选择题填在答题卡相应位置。考试完毕，只收答题卡，在第I、II卷上答题无效。
第I卷（选择题 共50分）
一、单项选择（共10小题，计10分）
从每小题A、B、C、D中选出一个能填入句中空白处的最佳答案。
1. Hw d yu read the wrd “message”?
A. ['mesɪdʒ]B. ['mesədʒ]C. [me'sɪg]D [mə'sɪdʒ]
2.—Wh’s ________ little by in the pht?
—It’s me. I’m playing ________ drum.
A. the; aB. the; theC. a; theD. the; /
3. This is Jim speaking. Tm isn’t at hme, but I can tell him t ________.
A. cme nB. think abutC. call backD. cut dwn
4.—What des he lk like?
—He ________ brwn hair and he is ________ medium height.
A. is; fB. has; fC. has; /D. have; f
5. Lucy usually ________ n a vacatin in Shanghai. But last year she ________ t Guangzhu.
A. ges; wentB. g; gesC. went; gesD. went; went
6. Nancy felt very ________ after the skating race. She just sat there.
A difficultB. excitedC. tiredD. quiet
7.—________ I talk with yu, Lily?
—Srry, I ________ English.
A. Can; speakB. Culd; will speakC. May; am writingD. Shuld; write
8. There ________ a pen and tw pencils in the pencil case.
A. isB. areC. haveD. be
9. The huse was ________ dark ________ I didn’t see him n the chair.
A s; becauseB. t; tC. very; ifD. s; that
10.—Laura, ________ in yur village?
—It’s sunny and beautiful.
A. What can yu seeB. Hw is the weather
C. What are yu dingD. Hw did yu g
二、完形填空（共10小题，计10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
As a dancer, Lu Wenwen is 11 . She wn many imprtant prizes in sme famus dancing cmpetitins. But peple 12 nly see her beauty n stage. They dn’t knw hw hard-wrking the yung dancer is.
When Lu was a little girl, she had many 13 . She liked painting and playing the pian. But she was 14 dancing. Lu said, “I will never 15 hw happy I was when I-first danced n stage.”
At first, sme f her relatives didn’t want Lu t learn dancing, 16 they thught dancing culdn’t be a lifelng jb. But Lu never 17 her dream. Luckily, Lu’s parents 18 her.
When Lu was 12, she became a student f the Secndary Schl f Beijing Dance Academy (学院). At first, Lu was the 19 girl in her class. That made it hard fr her t dance. Lu tried her best t lse weight (重量). She lst 15 kg in just a few mnths. “It was hard but I had t d that. 20 must wrk hard t make his r her dream cme true,” said Lu. “And nw my success shws it’s wrthwhile (值得的).”
11. A. friendlyB. difficultC. successfulD. ugly
12. A. hardlyB. badlyC. prbablyD. luckily
13. A. hbbiesB. dreamsC. jbsD. lessns
14. A. weak inB. clse tC. afraid fD. mst interested in
15. A. feelB. learnC. frgetD. remember
16. A. sB. andC. butD. because
17. A. lked upB. gave upC. gt upD. tk up
18. A. supprtedB. fllwedC. prtectedD. left
19. A. shrtestB. tallestC. yungestD. fattest
20. A. NbdyB. EveryneC. AnyneD. Smebdy
三、阅读理解（共15小题，计30分）
阅读下列短文，然后从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。
A
Dear Eric,
I’m in China nw. Yu knw my mther is frm China. She says China has the best basic educatin (基础教育) s she takes me t China. When I finish my middle schl, I will g back t America.
Nw, I study in a schl in Shanghai. My mther wrks as an English teacher in my schl. Every mrning, I get up at 6:30 and I g t schl at 7:00. I have breakfast at schl with my mther. Lessns begin at 8:00. I have fur lessns in the mrning and three in the afternn. Art is my favrite subject, because I can practice calligraphy (书法) with writing brush (毛笔) and Chinese ink (墨汁).
In the afternn, lessns begin at 2:00 and finish at 4:00. I play games with my friends after schl fr half an hur and then I g t my mther’s ffice (办公室) t d my hmewrk.
I g hme at 6:00. At 7:30 I have dinner with my mther. I g t bed at 9:30. I’m really busy every day but I like my life in China.
Hw abut yur life in America? Please write t me.
Yurs,
Jhn
21. Why des Jhn g t China?
A. T see his mther.B. T get the basic educatin.
C. T buy writing brush and Chinese ink.D. T have a family trip.
22. Hw many lessns des Jhn have a day?
A. 4.B. 3.C. 6.D. 7.
23. What des Jhn d at 5:00 p. m.?
A. He practices calligraphy.B. He plays with his friends.
C. He des his hmewrk.D. He ges hme with his mther.
24. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
A. Eric is Jhn’s friend in China.B. Jhn’s mther teaches Chinese.
C. English is Jhn’s favrite subject.D. Jhn likes his busy life in China.
B
We have many ways t g t schl-by car, by bus r by bike. But in Anyang village, Hangzhu, there’s nly a schl bat fr students. Why? There’s a big lake (湖) n their way t schl. It takes them an hur t get t schl by car. But the students can get there by bat quickly. They can save (节省) half an hur.
Sng Ganping gives the students the bat ride. In the mrning, Sng takes the students t schl by bat. And then in the afternn, he takes these students hme frm schl by bat, t. Sng is gd at it, and he is nice t these students. Sng des it fr free, but he is happy t d it.
Sng helps the ld peple in the village, t. There’s nly ne small shp in the village, s they ften take the bat t buy things. “We can’t ride bikes t buy smething. It’s very cnvenient fr us t g shpping by bat,” an ld man says. Sng likes his bat. Nw the students and the ld peple in the village need Sng’s bat every day.
25. Hw lng des it take the students t g t schl by bat?
A. Half an hur.B. Am hur.C. One hur and a half.D. Tw hurs.
26. What can we knw abut Sng?
A. He likes taking the students t and frm schl by bat.
B. He nw wants t buy a new bat.
C. He has a small shp in the village.
D. He is the teacher f the students, t.
27. What’s the Chinese meaning f the underlined wrd “cnvenient”
A.耗时的B.便宜的C.不幸的D.方便的
28. What des the passage mainly talk abut?
A. Sme nice students.B. A schl bat.C. A small village.D. A big schl.
C
Hell! I’m Tby. Tday is Sunday. I g t the park in ur neighbrhd with my friends.
When we get there, we find there are many peple there and they’re having a great time. Three girls are riding bikes, ten ld peple are dancing, tw wmen are walking dgs and five bys are having sme fd. My friends and I begin playing sccer.
After tw hurs, we stp playing. We find the bys finish eating and they are leaving. But they leave their garbage (垃圾) there. I see that and I’m angry (生气的). I ask them t put their garbage in a bin (垃圾箱) but the bin is a little far. frm here--in the frnt f the park. Peple need t g alng the rad and then turn left at the last crssing. S the bys dn’t listen t me. I then get an idea (主意).
I call the park wrker and tell him abut the bys. The wrker stps them and asks them t put the garbage in the bin. He als tells them why they shuld (应该) d it. The bys listen t him and clean up their garbage.
A park is imprtant t everyne in ur neighbrhd. The neighbrhd is ur hme. What shuld we d t shw ur lve fr it? When yu see sme peple like the bys, what will yu d?
29. What are the five bys ding in the park when Tby gets there?
A. They are walking dgs.B. They are dancing.
C. They are eating fd.D. They are playing sccer.
30. What des the underlined wrd “that” refer t?
A. The bys run after their dgs.B. The bys dn’t want t leave.
C. The bys ride their bikes very fast.D The bys dn’t put their garbage int the bin.
31. Where is the bin?
A. In the frnt f the park.B. In the center f the park.
C. Acrss frm the rad.D. At the street crner.
32. What des the passage mainly tell us?
A. We shuld ften d sprts.B. We shuld lve ur neighbrhd.
C. We shuld help peple in the park.D. We can’t have fd in the park.
D
Hagai Otien is frm Mathare, a slum (贫民窟) in Kenya. When he was a child, he was afraid that he culdn’t g t schl like his big brthers and sisters. His family was very pr. Fr the children in the family, smetimes there was n mney fr schl. Otien said, “My family ften has n mney fr even fd.”
Tday, Otien can wish mre. His high schl was ver last year. He will g t a university (大学) in China later this year, thanks t the help f the Chinese gvernment (政府). Tw f Otien’s classmates frm high schl als gt the Chinese gvernment’s help. They’re very happy. At the same time, they are all very thankful fr the MCEDO Beijing Schl in Kenya. They all studied there befre.
Peple started the MCEDO Beijing Schl in Kenya in 2007 with the help f the Chinese gvernment. Many Chinese peple helped build classrms and gave fd, bks, pencils and schlbags t the students. ________ The schl nly had 200 students in the beginning. Nw, it has a primary schl with 370 students and a middle schl with 156 students. Over 1,500 children frm the slums studied in the schls there. Many f them are nw at universities r start wrking t help their families.
33. What d we knw abut Otien frm Paragraph 1?
A. His family was very pr.B. His father ften cks fr him.
C. All his family can g t schl easily.D. His brthers and sisters are gd students.
34. Which f the fllwing sentences is the best fr “________”?
A. Otien was ne f them.B. This made mre students want t study.
C. Students frm China cme here.D. The mney helped students frm the slum.
35. What’s the best title fr the passage?
A. Study in a Big CityB. G t Visit Kenya
C. Help Children frm the SlumsD. Wrk Hard fr a Gd Jb in China
第II卷（非选择题 共50分）
四、单词拼写（共10小题，计5分）
根据首字母或汉语提示，写出下列句子中单词的完全形式。
36. She practices p________ the pian everyday.
37. He becmes s________ at the news withut saying a wrd.
38. There are s________ minutes in an hur.
39. After dinner, let’s help Mm d the d________.
40. My grandpa ften takes a walk a________ the Xiuzhen River every mrning.
41. Yesterday was rainy, s my father ________ (开车) me t schl.
42. Yu can wrk ut this math prblem ________ (容易地) .
43. Lk! She is ________ (跳舞) s well.
44. On Father’s day, I went t the shp and ________ (买) him a gift.
45. Thusands f ________ (游客) will cme t Rizha during this summer hliday.
五、情景交际（共5题，共10分）
根据对话内容选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，有两项为多余选项。
A: There is a new fd truck (餐车) near ur schl.
B: Really? 46
A: Well, it has many kinds f delicius ndles.
B: That sunds gd. 47
A: Yeah, I like them very much. 48
B: I like rice. But smetimes I als eat ndles.
A: 49
B: I like beef ndles with vegetables. Des the fd truck have these ndles?
A: Yes, it des. I want t have chicken ndles with carrts. 50
B: OK! Let’s g.
六、阅读填空（共10小题，计10分）
阅读下面的短文，在空白处填入适当的内容或括号内单词的正确形式（每空不多于三个单词）。
Please lk at Kiki! Yes, Kiki is 51 AI rbt (人工智能机器人). She 52 (wrk) in my hme. Fr me, she is my best friend and she is in my family, t.
At half 53 six in the mrning, Kiki cmes t my rm and calls me t get up. After I get dressed and brush my 54 (tth), she puts my breakfast n the table fr me. Kiki always makes vegetable salad fr me in the mrning and it 55 (taste) great. I’m never late fr schl with 56 (she) help. My mther is als happy t have Kiki 57 Kiki can help her clean ur hme.
When I get hme after schl, Kiki usually des exercise with me 58 (ne). She can 59 (play) sccer well. When we play tgether, time always ges 60 (quick). D yu want a rbtlike Kiki?
七、阅读表达（共5小题，计10分）
阅读下面的短文，根据要求完成文后各小题。
Summer is cming. It’s very ht and everyne wants t g swimming. Here are sme useful swimming tips fr yu.
*Swim with a friend.
Always swim with a friend and dn’t get int the water when yu are alne. When yu swim tgether with yur friends, yu can help each ther.
*Take swimming lessns.
Learning sme life-saving skills can help yu save a life. Yu can take sme classes fr beginners.
*Knw yur limit (极限).
Swimming can be a lt f fun and yu may want t stay in the water as lng as pssible. If yu are nt a gd swimmer r yu are just learning t swim, dn’t g int the deep water. It can be very dangerus.
*Swim in safe areas.
It’s a gd idea t swim nly in safe places. Dn’t get int the water if there is a “N Swimming” sign. Please remember these tips, enjy swimming and have fun.
61. Can we get int the water alne?
_________________________________________________________________________________________
62. What can help yu save a life?
_________________________________________________________________________________________
63. What shuld yu d if there is a “N Swimming” sign?
_________________________________________________________________________________________
64. Hw many tips are mentined in the passage?
_________________________________________________________________________________________
65. What d yu learn frm the passage?
_________________________________________________________________________________________
八、书面表达（共1题，计15分）
学校英语公众号要介绍学生们的周末生活。请根据以下内容提示，从自己的周末经历、家人的周末生活、对周末的感受等方面谈一谈周末生活，向公众号投稿。
内容提示：
What d yu usually d n weekends?
What did yu and yur family d last weekend?
Hw d yu feel abut yur weekend?
Say smething mre abut yur weekend life.
要求：
1.内容需包含所提示信息，不要逐条翻译，可适当发挥，以使行文连贯流畅；
2.文中不能出现真实的人名和校名；
3.词数80左右；文章的开头已给出，不计入总词数。
My weekends
I like weekends because I can d different kinds f interesting activities with my family r friends. _____
_________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________
2023—2024学年度下学期期末质量检测
七年级英语试题答案
一、单项选择（共10小题，计10分）
1-5 ABCBA 6-10 CCADB
二、完形填空(共10题，计10分)
11-15 CAADC 16-20 DBADB
三、阅读理解（共15小题，计30分）
21-25 BDCDA 26-30 ADBCD 31-35 ABABC
四、单词拼写（共10小题，计5分）
36. playing 37. surprised 38. sixty 39. dishes 40. alng
41.drve 42. easily 43. dancing 44. bught 45. visitrs
五、情景交际 （共5题，共10分）
46-50 CBAGE
六、阅读填空（共10小题，计10分）
51. an 52. wrks 53. past 54. teeth 55. tastes
56. her 57. because 58. first 59. play 60. quickly
七、阅读表达（共5小题，10分）
61. N, we can’t.
62. Sme life-saving skills can help we save a life.
63. We shuld stay away frm the water. \ We shuld nt get int the water.
64. Fur.
65. I learn sme useful swimming tips.（和文章主题相近亦可）
八、书面表达 (计15分)
（一）One pssible versin:
My weekends
I like weekends because I can d many kinds f interesting activities with my family r friends. My family usually ges t the cuntryside. We walk alng the riverside, fly kites and camp n the grass. We have fun tgether.
Last weekend, we did smething different. I went t visit my grandma with my father n Saturday. On Sunday, my classmates and I wrked as guides at the Natural Histry Museum. We tld the visitrs abut butterflies and their living habits.
Althugh I was kind f tired, I had a great time. In the future, if I have time, I wuld like t d sme vlunteer activities n weekends.
（二）评分说明：
1. 要能体现本文的主要目的：介绍自己和家人的周末活动以及自己的感受或看法；
2. 内容能涵盖提示信息要点并适当补充，虽与参考答案不符，只要合情合理即可接受；
3. 恰当使用连接词使文章的衔接过渡自然合理；
4. 时态、句型和词语运用恰当，表述完整准确，书写工整。
请按下列五个档次评分：
1. 短文通顺完整，要点齐全，表达清楚流畅, 语言基本无误，13－15分；
2. 短文较通顺完整，表达基本清楚，语言有少量错误，10－12分；
3. 能写明基本要点，短文不够通顺完整，语言有较多错误，但尚能达意，7－9分；
4. 仅能写明部分要点，短文不完整，语言错误多，影响意思表达，4－6分；
5. 仅能写出与文章有关的单词或片语，0—3分。
注：书写潦草卷面不整洁扣1分。
A. Hw abut yu?
B D yu like ndles?
C What specials des it have?
D. The fd truck is really cl.
E. D yu want t g there with me?
F. Let’s have a lk at the new schl.
G What kind f ndles d yu like?