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    北京市昌平区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末英语试题(含答案)

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    北京市昌平区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末英语试题(含答案)

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    这是一份北京市昌平区2023-2024学年七年级下学期期末英语试题(含答案),共9页。试卷主要包含了5分,共3 分), A等内容,欢迎下载使用。


    2024.6
    本试卷共8页,六道大题,35 个小题,满分60分。考试时间90分钟。考生务必将答案填涂或书写在答题卡上,在试卷上作答无效。考试结束后,请交回答题卡。
    第一部分
    本部分共30小题,共40分。根据题目要求,完成相应任务。
    一、根据短文内容,从各题所给的 A、B、C、D选项中,选出最佳选项 (每题0.5分,共3 分)
    A
    Tm has a busy but enjyable schl day. 1 wakes up early and eats a healthy breakfast. At schl, he studies hard and learns new things. During lunchtime, he stays with friends, sharing laughs and stries. In the afternn, he 2 ftball r jins the art club.When he gets hme, he reviews his lessns and helps with dinner. He ften reads bks r wrks n a hbby befre bed. This rutine can 3 him happy, active, and always learning.
    1. A. I B. Yu C. He D. She
    2. A. play B. plays C. played D. are playing
    3. A. keep B. t keep C. keeping D. kept
    B
    Last Sunday was Father's Day. My mm and I wanted t d smething special fr my dad. 4 the evening, we tk him t his favurite restaurant. When we gt there, we sat at a big table. Then we rdered my dad's favurite dishes. Dad enjyed them a lt, 5 we talked abut fun things tgether. After that, I sang a sng t my dad. He had a big smile n his face. On the way hme, he 6 us fr giving him a special Father's Day.
    4. A. On B. In C. At D. Fr
    5. A. s B. r C. but D. and
    6. A. thank B. thanks C. thanked D. will thank
    二、阅读下面的短文,用括号中所给单词的正确形式填入空白处,补全文章 (每题1分,共3 分)
    Hu Ting is a pet sitter (宠物托管师) frm Chengdu. Peple can find her nline. She feeds pets and plays with them. She lks after pets very 7 (careful ). With much training and learning frm ther pet sitters, she gets many pet-care 8 (skill). Fr her,each pet is different. She thinks it's imprtant t spend time with pet, and this makes them feel safe and happy. Hu Ting feels gd abut this jb. She 9 (help) mre pets in the future.
    三、完形填空 (每题1 分,共8分)
    阅读下面的短文,掌握其大意,然后从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择最佳选项。
    The First Sht
    On a beautiful Sunday afternn, Andy sat near the lake at a park, enjying the warm sunshine and the sft wind. Beside the lake, a grup f high schl bys was playing 10 .
    Andy tk a quick lk and then turned back. He was shrt and thin. He never thught he culd make a sht, and he didn't play basketball befre. Just then, ne f the bys threw(扔) the ball 11 It flew straight ver the basket and went all the way t where Andy was sitting.
    Andy heard sme f the bys crying ludly and turned t see a big range ball 12 his way.
    “Stp the ball,” ne f them cried.
    The ball landed a few feet away frm Andy and jumped again t the lake. Just befre it fell int the lake, Andy 13 it.
    “Bring it ver here,” called ne f the bys.
    Andy walked ver with the ball slwly. Thse unknwn lder bys made him nervus.But t his surprise (惊讶), they welcmed him warmly.
    “Thanks!” “That was really a gd catch !” They all said at nce.
    “Why dn't yu jin us?” Smene 14 him.
    “I can't play basketball. I dn't knw if I can d it...” Andy said, feeling 15 .
    “Cme n! Try a sht!”
    Andy tk the ball and kept his 16 n the basket. Then he gave it his best sht. He made it! Andy smiled as the bys all cheered (欢呼) happily fr him.
    Frm that day n, Andy started t 17 abut hw t play basketball. And he lved it very much. His first try pened up a new wrld fr him.
    10. A. basketball B. ftball C. baseball D. vlleyball
    11. A. lightly B. secretly C. hard D. again
    12. A. shwing B. shining C. leaving D. heading
    13. A. brke B. caught C. carried D. passed
    14. A. stpped B. invited C. intrduced D. fllwed
    15. A. tired B. bred C. unsure D. unlucky
    16. A. respect B. feeling C. memry D. attentin
    17. A. learn B. hear C. wrry D. frget
    四、阅读理解 (每题2 分,共26 分)
    (一)阅读下列景观介绍,请根据人物喜好和需求匹配最适合的景观推荐,并将对应的 A、B、C、D选项填在相应位置上。选项中有一项为多余选项。
    A
    18.
    19.
    20.
    (二)阅读下列短文,根据短文内容,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中,选择最佳选项。
    B
    Dear Susan,
    Yu asked me abut what happened after my family mved t this new city. Well, here is ne stry I want t tell yu.
    One day, my parents tk me t a stry telling shw. As the stry tellers spke, their stries really excited me. Suddenly, Ihad an idea——“I want t be a stry teller t!” But I was very afraid f speaking in frnt f peple. I didn't want t lse face.Hwever, I culdn't stp thinking abut it.
    A few mnths later, there was a stry telling wrkshp. I jined it. I als signed up(报名) t tell a stry in frnt f peple sn after, s I had t d it befre I wanted t stp.I just had t face my fears (恐惧). The first time I went n stage, I was s nervus. My hands were cld, and my heart jumped quickly. But nce I started telling the stry, Icled dwn slwly. When I finished, everyne cheered ludly fr me. I felt s happy.
    Frm then n, I practiced telling stries mre, smetimes n stage, smetimes at hme. A few mnths later, my stry telling gt much better. Strangers even tld me they enjyed my stries. I wasn't afraid t talk t new peple. My parents were als prud f me.
    All f my changes happened because I listened t my heart and faced my fears. I really hpe that ne day yu culd cme here t watch my shw. Yu wuld ttally be surprised!
    Best wishes!
    Yurs,
    Shirley
    21. Shirley gt the idea f being a stry teller when .
    A. she std n stage
    B. she watched a shw
    C. she jined a wrkshp
    D. she talked t strangers
    22. Hw did Shirley feel when she finished her first stry telling?
    A. Glad. B. Easy. C. Afraid. D. Nervus.
    23. What can we learn frm the stry?
    A. Happiness is frm great talents.
    B. Never be afraid and keep trying.
    C. Learning happens with thers' help.
    D. Start new things after finishing the ld.
    C
    After a lng day's hard wrk, yu may feel a little tired. Then, yu take sme cl water, and start t becme better. As we all knw, drinking water is great fr ur bdy. We dn't feel thirsty after drinking enugh (足够的) water. It can als help with sme health prblems like headaches. Last mnth, a survey f 2,000 peple fund smething new abut drinking water—it has sme interesting cnnectins (关联) with happiness.
    In the survey, the scientists learned abut hw much water these peple drink each day.Then they built different grups and studied hw these peple feel after drinking water.
    The survey reprted that peple drinking mre water felt much happier, but thse drinking less water didn't feel the same. When they talked abut their feelings abut life, peple drinking enugh water a day thught themselves t be mre psitive (积极的), different frm peple having little water. S it's clear that drinking water can bring us happiness.
    Then, what stps peple frm drinking enugh water? One main reasn is that sme peple think plain water (纯水) is very bring t drink. T make water taste better, they can put sme fruits in it. Eating enugh fruits and vegetables als helps , because peple can get water frm mst f them. Anther reasn may be that peple frget t drink water when they are very busy. S it's a gd idea t carry a water bttle everywhere and set an alarm t tell them t drink water.
    Of curse, drinking water is nt the nly way t find happiness in daily life. Hwever, it can be a very easy way t make yurself happy. Drink arund six t eight glasses f water a day, make it a habit and enjy a healthy bdy as well as a gd feeling.
    24. What is Paragraph 3 mainly abut?
    A. Why the scientists started the survey.
    B. What the scientists fund in the survey.
    C. Hw many peple tk part in the survey.
    D. Hw much water peple drank in the survey.
    25. What can we learn frm the passage?
    A. Being psitive can stp health prblems.
    B. Eating plants imprves peple's memry。
    C. Drinking less water makes peple feel dwn.
    D. Using alarms helps build a water drinking habit.
    26. What culd be the best title fr the passage?
    A. Is Clean Water Imprtant In Our Life?
    B. Is Plain Water Really Brıng T Drink?
    C. Water Is A Simple Key T Happiness
    D. Water Has A Cnnectin T Healthy Eating
    D
    There are a lt f reasns t g ut in nature t lk arund. It makes us feel happy, helps us knw abut the plants and animals, and shws us hw ur wrld is put tgether.
    Fr sme scientists, hwever, nature gives ut smething mre——the ideas t imprve peple's life. They study bees t wrk ut hw small rbts might“talk” t reprt the weather. They lk at geck’s feet t find hw t make tape. They study fruit flies t help dctrs save peple's lives.
    “There are s many fun ways that anımals have develped t slve(解决) prblems, and sme f them are nes we never thught f,”says Lisa Manning, a prfessr f the biinspired (生物启发的) center. There, scientists carry n studies t get ideas fr inventins frm ther living things. Zhenyu Gan is a rbt engineer in the center. He makes rbts with fur legs, instead f rbts with wheels (轮子).
    T find ut hw legged rbts culd stand r walk, Gan lks t animals such as hrses and mice. “The first thing we have t understand is hw they mve,” Gan says.
    “Usually, rbts with tw legs like peple are clumsy, just think abut hw a baby learns t stand and walk. But my rbts have fur legs, just like hrses, making the rbts walk r run easily and fast,” says Gan.
    Gan's rbts have lts f uses. They can explre the mn. Hspitals use dglike rbts t wrk with dctrs. Plice use legged rbts t search fallen buildings fr missing peple.
    Of curse, there are many ways t slve prblems withut lking at nature. “These ways wrk, and they are easy,” says Manning. “But they may nt be as useful as biinspired inventins (发明), and they can't wrk as well as animal ways when changes in nature cme.”
    27. Accrding t the passage, sme scientists study nature t .
    A. grw sme plants B. keep animals safe
    C. change the weather D. make ur life better
    28. The wrd “clumsy” in Paragraph 5 means .
    A. quick t give help B. ready t face changes
    C. difficult t mve freely D. dangerus t wrk with
    29. What can we learn frm the passage?
    A. Biinspired inventins can help save peple's lives.
    B. Lts f peple will wrk with animals in the future.
    C. Rbts with wheels have a lt f uses in ur daily life.
    D. Scientists can use geck's feet t make new medicine.
    30. What is the purpse (目的) f writing this passage?
    A. T intrduce changes f biinspired ideas.
    B. T tell us the difficulties f studying animals.
    C. T shw us hw animal ways help in ur lives.
    D. T find ut different reasns t lk at nature.
    第二部分
    本部分共5 小题,共20分。根据题目要求,完成相应任务。
    五、阅读表达 (第31-33题每题2分, 第34题4分, 共10分)
    阅读短文,根据短文内容回答问题。
    Hw d yu spend yur weekends? Fr many yung peple, they g t the cinema with friends, have dinner ut, r g shpping. This was nce the rutine fr Zhang Yiling, a 27-year-ld girl frm Shanghai. But three years ag, fresh ut f university and starting her first jb, Zhang recgnized that her idea f“relaxing weekends” nearly turned int “spending mney”. If she didn't spend mney n weekends, she wuldn't knw what relaxing activities t d. Because f this, Zhang began t lk fr ther ways t enjy weekend life, nt just shpping.
    T make a change, Zhang and 26 friends built up The Lifespark Grup in 2022. They started a prject called “Make Yur Weekend a True Break” By ding surveys, they fund many surprising ways t enjy weekends, such as dancing and exercising in a park square,jining bk clubs, watching mvies at hme, r even becming a mdel fr free phts.
    Zhang herself als began t pay clser attentin t the interesting things arund her. She fund that a flwer shp near her hme gave free lessns n weekends. She learned abut hw t pick fresh flwers and grw plants. “I take care f my plants and flwers every day. I enjy lking at them grwıng strng. That makes me feel relaxed.”
    “I hpe that ur prject can make mre peple knw what they really want and hw t use mney in a right way,” said Zhang Yiling. “Let's g t the library t read abut different lives we never experience and visit museums t learn abut histry r culture. We can als spend an afternn lking thrugh ld pictures with ur family.”
    31. What did Zhang Yiling recgnize three years ag?
    32. When did Zhang and 26 friends build up The Lifespark Grup?
    33. Hw did Zhang feel when she lked after her plants and flwers?
    34. Wuld yu like t spend weekends like The Lifespark Grup? Why r why nt?(Please give tw reasns.)
    六、文段表达 (10 分)
    35.从下面两个题目中任选一题,根据所给提示,完成一篇不少于50 词的英语文段写作。文中已给出内容不计入总词数。所给提示词语仅供选用。请不要写出你的校名和姓名。
    题目①
    假设你是李华。作为学生会主席,你正在筹备学校放假前的“校园劳动日”活动,并想邀请交换生 Peter参加。请你用英文写一封电子邮件告知他活动内容及意义。
    提示词语: sweep, water trees, jy, duty
    提示问题: ·What activity d yu plan t d n Schl Labr Day?
    ●What can yu get frm the activity?
    题目②
    亲近大自然,不仅能够放松身体,还能滋养精神。
    某英文网站在开展以“亲近大自然”为主题的征文活动,请你用英文写一篇短文投稿,谈谈你亲近大自然的一次经历,内容包括此次经历发生的时间、地点、活动内容及感受。
    提示词语: park, see, walk, take phts, wnderful
    提示问题: ·When and where did yu g?
    ·What did yu d there?
    ·Hw did yu feel? A If yu want t enjy the wnderful
    sights f the snw wrld, yu can cme t
    Nrway in winter. It gives yu a chance t
    see the beautiful and clurful lights in the
    sky. Yu can als
    have fun activities like
    ice fishing r muntain
    skiing.
    The best time t visit the Grand Canyn
    in America is August. Yu can walk t see
    the trees changing clurs, ride in a
    helicpter t see the cany n frm abve, and
    sleep utside under
    the stars t feel really
    clse t nature ( 自
    然).
    . It's very cmfrtable t visit the West
    Lake in Hangzhu in spring. Yu can take a
    slw bat ride n the quiet lake, and walk
    arund the pretty rads. If yu are a tea
    lver, remember t
    stay at a tea huse by
    the lake.
    Summer is a great time t visit the
    Great Barrier Reef in Australia. It's famus
    fr the clear blue sea and fishes. Yu can
    see the underwater wrld and enjy a beach
    party. Dn't frget t
    respect this great
    wnder while yu are
    travelling here.
    Dear Peter,
    Hw is everything ging? I'm writing t invite yu t jin in ur Schl Labr Day befre summer vacatin.


    Lking frward t yur early reply.
    Yurs,
    Li Hua
    昌平区2023—2024学年第二学期初一年级期末质量抽测
    英语试卷笔试部分参考答案及评分标准 2024.6
    第一部分
    一、根据短文内容,从各题所给的 A、B、C、D选项中选出最佳选项 (每题0.5 分,共3 分)
    1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. D 6. C
    二、用所给词的适当形式填空 (每题1 分,共3分)
    7. carefully 8. skills 9. will help
    三、完形填空 (每题1分,共8分)
    10. A 11. C 12. D 13. B
    14. B 15. C 16. D 17. A
    四、阅读理解 (每题2分,共26分)
    18. A 19. D 20. C 21. B 22. A
    23. B 24. B 25. D 26. C 27. D
    28. C 29. A 30. C
    第二部分
    五、阅读与表达 (第31-33题每题2分, 第34题4分, 共10分)
    31. Zhang recgnized that her idea f “relaxing weekends” nearly turned int “spending mney”.
    32. In 2022.
    33. Zhang felt relaxed.
    34. Yes. The grup lets me knw hw t spend a meaningful weekend. And the activities can help me develp new skills.
    (开放式答案,言之有理、言之有物即可。)
    六、文段表达 (10分)
    35. One pssible versin:
    题目①
    Dear Peter,
    Hw is everything ging? I'm writing t invite yu t jin in ur Schl Labr Day befre summer vacatin. We will wrk tgether t sweep flrs in the classrms and pick up rubbish n the playgrund. In the afternn, we will plant flwers and water the schl vegetable garden.
    I'm sure Schl Labr Day can give us a chance t experience the jy f labr. And it's ur duty t build a beautiful schl. I believe we'll have a meaningful day.
    Lking frward t yur early reply.
    Yurs,
    Li Hua
    题目2
    Last Sunday, I went t Mangshan Frest Park with my parents. We had a gd time there.
    Mangshan Frest Park is ne f the best parks in my hmetwn and it's nt far frm my hme. S we rde t the park and gt there early in the mrning. Walking in the frest and listening t the sngs f birds made us feel relaxed. We even climbed t the tp f the muntain and tk lts f phts.
    It's great t get clse t nature and I will always remember this wnderful trip.
    文段表达评分标准:
    第一档: (9-10分)
    完全符合题目要求,观点正确,要点齐全。句式多样,词汇丰富。语言准确,语意连贯,表达清楚,具有逻辑性。
    第二档: (6-8分)
    基本符合题目要求,观点正确,要点齐全。语法结构和词汇基本满足文章需要。语言基本通顺,语意基本连贯,表达基本清楚。虽然有少量语言错误,但不影响整体理解。
    第三档: (3-5分)
    部分内容符合题目要求,要点不齐全。语法结构和词汇错误较多,语言不通顺,表达不够清楚,影响整体理解。
    第四档: (1-2分)
    与题目有关内容不多,只是简单拼凑词语,所写内容难以理解。
    第五档:(0分)
    与题目内容完全无关。所写内容无法理解。

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