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2022-2023学年广东省中山市小榄一中七年级（下）期中英语试卷
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这是一份2022-2023学年广东省中山市小榄一中七年级（下）期中英语试卷，共9页。试卷主要包含了语法选择，完形填空，阅读理解，短文填空，读写综合等内容，欢迎下载使用。
笔试部分（95分，本卷在70分钟内完成）
一、语法选择（本大题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后按照句子结构的语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
It is 8: 00 n a ht summer evening. Kevin and his brther Alan 1 TV in the living rm. Suddenly the TV is ff. Alan tries t turn it back n, 2 it desn't wrk. They sn knw that there is n electricity（电）. 3 can they d?
“D yu want t g utside t watch sme stars 4 me?” Kevin asks.
“Yeah, I'd lve t.” Alan says 5 ,
Withut streetlights, the stars are bright and very 6 t see. Lying n the grass, they see different 7 f stars. Hw beautiful!
After watching the stars fr 8 hur, the bys g back hme. It is kind f dark. There are nly sme candles（蜡烛）. They spend the night playing cards and telling stries with 9 parents. They really enjy 10 stars and the time with their family.
Smetimes we can have a different lifestyle and enjy all the things that life give us.
1. A. watch B. watches C. are watching
2. A. and B. but C. s
3. A. What B. Why C. Where
4. A. fr B. in C. with
5. A. happy B. happily C. mre happily
6. A. easy B. easierC. easily
7. A. kind B. kinds C. kind's
8. A. a B. an C. the
9. A. their B. theyC. them
10. A. watch B. t watch C. watching
二、完形填空（本大题有15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
When Sandy is a middle schl student, he is tall and likes basketball very much. S, he asks his PE teacher t let him 11 the schl basketball club. Finally, the teacher says 12 .
On Sandy's 13 day in the club, he wears his favrite T-shirt and shes. The teacher lks at him and says “Sandy, yu're new here and yur jb tday is t 14 these basketballs.” Then, the teacher ges t play 15 with the ther students in the club. Sandy 16 t wipe the dirty basketballs. Fr fifteen minutes he des the same thing, he feels very 17 abut this. Finally, he ges t the teacher and says, “I can 18 play basketball well. Why can't I 19 with the ther students.” The teacher lks at the basketballs and sme f them are still 20 he says t Sandy, “It's 21 fr yu t wipe basketballs, but yu can't d it well. Hw can yu play basketball well befre yu d the small things 22 ?” Sandy desn't say anything, and his 23 turns red.
Sandy is 26 nw, and he never 24 his teacher's wrds. He always des the small things well and wrks hard n basketball. Nw he is a great basketball 25 in his cuntry and he still thanks his teacher a lt.
11. A. jin B. g C. cme D. leave
12. A. thanks B. srry C. yes D. n
13. A. first B. lastC. next D. secnd
14. A. useB. play C. learnD. clean
15. A. sccerB. basketball C. baseball D. tennis
16. A. likes B. wants C. startsD. wishes
17. A. happy B. unhappy C. fun D. strict
18. A. nly B. t C. als D. either
19. A. play B. live C. g D. talk
20. A. cute B. dirtyC. clean D. beautiful
21. A. difficult B. bring C. easy D. relaxing
22. A. well B. quickly C. early D. quietly
23. A. eye B. muth C. leg D. face
24. A. remembers B. frgets C. writes D. hears
25. A. dancer B. wrkerC. playerD. writer
三、阅读理解（本大题有15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
阅读A、B两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。
A
26. When can a visitr enter Zhngshan Museum?
A. At 8: 00 am n Tuesday B. At 7: 00 pm n Wednesday
C. At 4: 30 pm n MndayD. At 11: 00 am n Sunday
27. Wh can visit the museum?
A. A father with his 5-year-ld sn. B. A girl wh is eating fd.
C. An ld wman with a dg. D. A 6-year-ld by alne.
28. Accrding t the passage, we knw that _______.
A. Peple can buy a ticket n the Receptin f Hall B. Each persn can bk at least 5 tickets every day.
C. Peple can bk a ticket n Wechat. D. Peple can bk a ticket n www. zsmuseum. cn.
29. Peple can learn mre infrmatin abut Zhngshan Museum by _______.
A. calling the museum at 88203200B. visiting the museum's website
C. visiting the museum n N. 179 Sun Wen Zhng Lu D. Sending an e-mail t the museum
30. Yu can find this passage _______.
A. in a travel guidebk B. in a histry textbk
C. in a gegraphy reprt D. n a technlgy website
B
Animals grw up in different ways. They have lts f lessns t learn. Sme animals are brn helpless but their mthers prtect them. A newbrn kangar is the size f a bee. It is nly a few centimeters. She stays in her mther's safe puch. She desn't pen her eyes fr at least five mnths. A newbrn mnkey cannt walk. He is carried by his mther.
Other baby animals can walk sn after they're brn. They learn t run with their mther when danger is near. A baby zebra（斑马）can run an hur after she is brn.
Sme baby animals are brn in a place that is safe. Other baby animals are brn in the pen. Baby wlves are brn in large hles. A baby elephant is brn n pen, grassy land. Other elephants make a circle（圈） t prtect her.
Animals that drink their mthers' milk are called mammals（哺乳动物）. A mther bear's milk is fatty and rich. Baby bears need lts f fat t keep warm in winter. They have milk fr six mnths. Baby zebras drink milk fr six mnths r mre! As baby animals grw they need slid（固体的）fd. Baby lins eat what their mther can catch.
31. Which baby animals dn't pen their eyes fr at least five mnths?
A. Lins. B. Zebras. C. Kangars. D. Elephants.
32. What can't a baby zebra d an hur after she is brn?
A. Drink milk. B. Walk by herself.
C. Run. D. make a circle t prtect herself.
33. What des the underline wrd “puch” in paragraph I mean?
A. bag B. muthC. teeth D. hand
34. Frm the text, we can knw that _______.
A. Baby wlves are ften brn in the pen. B. Newbrn lins nly eat slid fd.
C. Newbrn mnkeys can walk but can't jump. D. Baby bears need lts f fat t keep warm in winter.
35. What's the passage mainly abut?
A. Peple shuld prtect animals. B. Animals grw up in different ways.
C. We live with animals tgether. D. Animals are very imprtant.
C
配对阅读。左栏是5个人的爱好或特长的描述，右栏是7个活动简介。请为左栏的每一个人选择一个最合适的活动。
四、短文填空（本大题有10小题，每小题1. 5分，共15分）
请阅读下面这篇文章，在所给的每个空格中填入一个形式正确、意义相符的单词。
Hw d yu usually g t wrk, by bus r by bike? My family have different ways f ging utside.
My parents wrks in a hspital. The hspital is 41 frm ur hme. It is abut 25 kilmeters, s they g t wrk 42 car. The traffic（交通）is heavy and it 43 them abut frty-five minutes. My sister has a clthes stre. It's abut tw kilmeters frm her 44 t ur hme. She usually gets up at 7: 00 and leaves hme at 7: 50. She 45 there every day. She thinks walking is gd 46 health.
I'm a middle schl student. After breakfast, I take the schl bus t schl. Many students 47 taking the schl bus is bring, but I dn't think s 48 I can talk with my classmates n the bus. It gives me a lt f 49 .
What abut yur family? D yu have the same way f ging utside r different? Please 50 me abut that. I'm waiting fr yur answers.
五、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A. 回答问题（本题有小题，每小题2分，共10分）。
请阅读下面这篇文章，根据所提供的信息，回答5个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整。
51. Hw lng d Jack's family exercise every day?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
52. What club des Jack jin?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
53. What des Jack always talk t his parents abut?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
54. When des Jack say "I lve yu" t his parents?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
55. Hw many rules are there in the passage?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
B. 书面表达（本题15分）
假设你是交换生Tm，学生会正在征询对学校现有校规的意见。请你用英语写一封信给学生会主席李华，谈谈你的看法。
内容包括：
（1）告知你写信的目的。
（2）列举二至三条你认为好的校规。
（3）列举一至二条你认为需要修改的校规，并说明原因。
作文要求：
（1）不能照抄原文，不得在作文中出现学校的真实姓名和考生的真实姓名。
（2）语句连贯，词数70词左右，作文的开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Li Hua,
My name is Tm, an exchange student frm Class One, Grade Seven. __________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
I am lking frward t yu replay.
Yurs,
Tm
2022-2023学年下学期中段限时训练七年级英语参考答案
一、语法选择（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
1-5 CBACB 6-10 ABBAC
二、完形填空（本大题有15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
11-15 ACADB 16-20 CBCAB 21-25 CADBC
三、阅读理解。（本大题有15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
26-30 DACBA 31-35 CDADB 36-40GDABE
四、短文填空。（本大题有10小题，每小题1. 5分，共15分）
41. far 42. by 43. takes 44. stre 45. walks
46. fr 47. think 48. because 49. fun 50. tell
五、读写综合。
A. 回答问题（本大题有5小题，每小题2分，共10分）。
51. They play sprts fr ne hur every day. /Fr an hur.
52. Jack is in the schl swimming club. /He jins the schl swimming club. / The swimming club.
53. He always talks abut his schl and friends. /His schl and friends.
54. He always says “I lve yu” t his parents in the mrning befre he ges t schl and in the evening befre he ges t bed. /In the mrning befre he ges t schl and in the evening befre he ges t bed.
55. Three. /3.
B. 书面表达。（本题15分）
略
评卷组长根据《中山市初中英语笔试主观题评分标准》（2020年6月）制定具体评分细则。
小榄镇2022-2023学年下册英语中段限时训练题试卷
七年级英语主观题评分细则
四、短文填空。（本大题有10小题，每小题1. 5分，共15分）
41. far 1. 5分；其他0分
42. by 1. 5分；其他0分
43. takes 1. 5分；take 1分；taking0. 5分；其他0分
44. stre/shp 1. 5分；stres/shps 1分；其他0分
45. walks 1. 5分；walk 1分；walking0. 5分；其他0分
46. fr 1. 5分；其他0分
47. think 1. 5分；thinks1分；thinking 0. 5分；其他0分
48. because 1. 5分；其他0分
49. fun 1. 5分；funs0. 5分；funny0. 5分；其他0分
50. tell 1. 5分；tells 1分；telling 0. 5分；其他0分
五、读写综合。
A. 回答问题（本大题有5小题，每小题2分，共10分）。
A. 回答问题（共5小题，每小题2分）
基本标准： （1）所写答案信息准确、语法正确、语义完整，给满分。
（2）所写答案信息不完整，每题扣1分；
（3）出现无关信息，每题扣0. 5分；
（4）信息错误不给分。
（5）所写答案信息准确，语义完整，语法有误，每处扣0. 5分。
（6）句子没有主语扣0. 5分；
（7）末尾没有写句号，不扣分。
51. They play sprts fr ne hur every day. /Fr an hur. 2分
没有fr 扣0. 5分；
52. Jack is in the schl swimming club. /He jins the schl swimming club. / The swimming club. 2分；
Jins the schl swimming club. 1. 5分
Swimming club 1. 5分
Swimming. 1分
53. He always talks abut his schl and friends. /His schl and friends. 2分
Schl 1分；
Friends 1分；
54. He always says “I lve yu” t his parents in the mrning befre he ges t schl and in the evening befre he ges t bed. /In the mrning befre he ges t schl and in the evening befre he ges t bed. 2分
In the mrning befre he ges t schl 1分
In the evening befre he ges t bed. 1分
Befre he ges t schl. /In the mrning. 1分
Befre he ges t bed. /In the evening. 1分
55. Three. /3. 2分；
B. 书面表达（1题，共15分）
1.评分原则与方法：
从内容与语言两方面予以分档给分。内容方面要求考生能完整地按写作要点进行表述，要点详略得当、表述合理，词数符合写作要求。语言方面要求学生表达准确连贯、 符合逻辑。允许学生合理运用原文句式结构，但不可以照抄原文。如考生把文章所给出的开头部分抄写在答题卡上，不扣分（即使抄写有错误）。
2.内容分与语言分的分配
内容分：6分
（1）告知你写信的目的 1分
（2）列举二至三条你认为好的校规 2分
（3）列举一至二条你认为需要修改的校规 2分
说明原因 1分
内容要点完整且词数符合写作要求的作文可以得6分，词数在70个以下的作文在内容分上酌情扣分。
语言分：9分 (确定语言分档次时考虑内容的涵盖)
第一档：8-9分
要求：内容涵盖所有的要点，表达准确，意思连贯，符合逻辑，只有个别不影响交际的语言错误。
第二档：6–7分
要求：内容涵盖绝大部分要点，表达清楚，意思连贯，符合逻辑，但有少量语言错误。
第三档：4–5分
要求：内容涵盖大部分要点，表达较为清楚、连贯，基本符合逻辑，但有一些语言错误。
第四档：1–3分
要求：内容涵盖部分要点，能写出少数正确句子，但整体表达不太连贯，且语言错误较多。
第五档：0分
空白卷或完全没有相关内容。
注：以上答案及评分标准仅供参考。Welcme t new Zhngshan Museum
Cme and learn the lcal culture and histry f Zhngshan. There is smething fr everyne.
※Opening hurs:
Tuesdays-Sundays, 9: 00-17: 00 （N entry after 16: 30）
Clsed n Mndays （Except public hlidays）
※Visitrs: Peple f all ages are welcme. Children under 10 shuld cme alng with their parents.
※Ticket Price: Free
※Hw t bk a ticket?
Fllw id: zhngshanmuseum dyh n Wechat, and bk at least I day befre （3 days tp）. Every persn can nly bk5 tickets mst every day.
※Free Guide Service:
If yu need a museum guide, please cme t the Receptin f the Hall.
※Tur tips in the museum: N eating.
N pets.
N vides.
D nt use flashlight while taking phts.
Be quiet.
※Cntact infrmatin:
Website: www. zsmuseum. cn
Tel: 0760-88230200
Address: N. 197 Sun Wen Zhng Lu, Shiqi District, Zhngshan City
（ ）36. Kate is a guitar lver. She wants t learn t play the guitar. She is free n the weekend.
（ ）37. Jim is gd at playing the pian. He wants t have a part-time jb as a pian teacher.
（ ）38. Tina is interested in singing. She wants t sing with thers and have a shw tgether.
（ ）39. Jane likes dancing very much. She has learned dancing fr three years. She can dance t the music.
（ ）40. Jill is an art teacher in a middle schl. Nw she wants t jin a club and help thers with drawing
A. D yu like singing? We need singers fr the schl shw. Cme and jin us if yu are interested in singing sngs.
B. Are yu gd at dancing? D yu want t be a gd dancer? Our schl dancing team needs gd dancer. Welcme t jin us.
C. Mr. Wang is a gd guitar teacher. He is gd at teaching thers hw t play the guitar n weekdays. Please call 764-3290.
D. Can yu play the pian well? We want sme pian teachers t teach students frm middle schls. If yu can, cme t help us.
E. Are yu an art teacher? Our club needs smene t teach ur students t draw. Cme here, please.
F. Our stre sells great guitars, vilins, pians and drums. Please cme t ur stre and buy ne.
G. D yu want t play the guitar better? Yu can jin us. We have class n weekends. We have the best teachers fr guitar.
Jack has a happy family. There are sme rules in his family.
Keep healthy
Being healthy is imprtant. Jack's family play sprts fr ne hur every day. Jack is in the schl swimming club. And his parents run every mrning.
Evening time is family time
They can't watch TV r play cmputer games after dinner. The family usually sit n the sfa and talk. Jack always talks abut his schl and friends. Smetimes they take a walk tgether.
Always say “I lve yu” and “thank yu”
Jack always says “I lve yu” t his parents in the mrning befre he ges t schl and in the evening befre he ges t bed. His parents say it t him t. When Jack helps his mther, she says “thank yu”. They shw their lve and thanks all the time.
Jack gets n well with his family. He lves his parents very much. He thinks respect, understanding and sharing make them clser. Nt all rules are strict. Everybdy can make sme warm rules fr a happy family.
笔试部分（95分，本卷在70分钟内完成）
一、语法选择（本大题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后按照句子结构的语法和上下文连贯的要求，从每题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
It is 8: 00 n a ht summer evening. Kevin and his brther Alan 1 TV in the living rm. Suddenly the TV is ff. Alan tries t turn it back n, 2 it desn't wrk. They sn knw that there is n electricity（电）. 3 can they d?
“D yu want t g utside t watch sme stars 4 me?” Kevin asks.
“Yeah, I'd lve t.” Alan says 5 ,
Withut streetlights, the stars are bright and very 6 t see. Lying n the grass, they see different 7 f stars. Hw beautiful!
After watching the stars fr 8 hur, the bys g back hme. It is kind f dark. There are nly sme candles（蜡烛）. They spend the night playing cards and telling stries with 9 parents. They really enjy 10 stars and the time with their family.
Smetimes we can have a different lifestyle and enjy all the things that life give us.
1. A. watch B. watches C. are watching
2. A. and B. but C. s
3. A. What B. Why C. Where
4. A. fr B. in C. with
5. A. happy B. happily C. mre happily
6. A. easy B. easierC. easily
7. A. kind B. kinds C. kind's
8. A. a B. an C. the
9. A. their B. theyC. them
10. A. watch B. t watch C. watching
二、完形填空（本大题有15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
通读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后在每小题所给的四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。
When Sandy is a middle schl student, he is tall and likes basketball very much. S, he asks his PE teacher t let him 11 the schl basketball club. Finally, the teacher says 12 .
On Sandy's 13 day in the club, he wears his favrite T-shirt and shes. The teacher lks at him and says “Sandy, yu're new here and yur jb tday is t 14 these basketballs.” Then, the teacher ges t play 15 with the ther students in the club. Sandy 16 t wipe the dirty basketballs. Fr fifteen minutes he des the same thing, he feels very 17 abut this. Finally, he ges t the teacher and says, “I can 18 play basketball well. Why can't I 19 with the ther students.” The teacher lks at the basketballs and sme f them are still 20 he says t Sandy, “It's 21 fr yu t wipe basketballs, but yu can't d it well. Hw can yu play basketball well befre yu d the small things 22 ?” Sandy desn't say anything, and his 23 turns red.
Sandy is 26 nw, and he never 24 his teacher's wrds. He always des the small things well and wrks hard n basketball. Nw he is a great basketball 25 in his cuntry and he still thanks his teacher a lt.
11. A. jin B. g C. cme D. leave
12. A. thanks B. srry C. yes D. n
13. A. first B. lastC. next D. secnd
14. A. useB. play C. learnD. clean
15. A. sccerB. basketball C. baseball D. tennis
16. A. likes B. wants C. startsD. wishes
17. A. happy B. unhappy C. fun D. strict
18. A. nly B. t C. als D. either
19. A. play B. live C. g D. talk
20. A. cute B. dirtyC. clean D. beautiful
21. A. difficult B. bring C. easy D. relaxing
22. A. well B. quickly C. early D. quietly
23. A. eye B. muth C. leg D. face
24. A. remembers B. frgets C. writes D. hears
25. A. dancer B. wrkerC. playerD. writer
三、阅读理解（本大题有15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
阅读A、B两篇短文，从每小题所给的四个选项中，选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。
A
26. When can a visitr enter Zhngshan Museum?
A. At 8: 00 am n Tuesday B. At 7: 00 pm n Wednesday
C. At 4: 30 pm n MndayD. At 11: 00 am n Sunday
27. Wh can visit the museum?
A. A father with his 5-year-ld sn. B. A girl wh is eating fd.
C. An ld wman with a dg. D. A 6-year-ld by alne.
28. Accrding t the passage, we knw that _______.
A. Peple can buy a ticket n the Receptin f Hall B. Each persn can bk at least 5 tickets every day.
C. Peple can bk a ticket n Wechat. D. Peple can bk a ticket n www. zsmuseum. cn.
29. Peple can learn mre infrmatin abut Zhngshan Museum by _______.
A. calling the museum at 88203200B. visiting the museum's website
C. visiting the museum n N. 179 Sun Wen Zhng Lu D. Sending an e-mail t the museum
30. Yu can find this passage _______.
A. in a travel guidebk B. in a histry textbk
C. in a gegraphy reprt D. n a technlgy website
B
Animals grw up in different ways. They have lts f lessns t learn. Sme animals are brn helpless but their mthers prtect them. A newbrn kangar is the size f a bee. It is nly a few centimeters. She stays in her mther's safe puch. She desn't pen her eyes fr at least five mnths. A newbrn mnkey cannt walk. He is carried by his mther.
Other baby animals can walk sn after they're brn. They learn t run with their mther when danger is near. A baby zebra（斑马）can run an hur after she is brn.
Sme baby animals are brn in a place that is safe. Other baby animals are brn in the pen. Baby wlves are brn in large hles. A baby elephant is brn n pen, grassy land. Other elephants make a circle（圈） t prtect her.
Animals that drink their mthers' milk are called mammals（哺乳动物）. A mther bear's milk is fatty and rich. Baby bears need lts f fat t keep warm in winter. They have milk fr six mnths. Baby zebras drink milk fr six mnths r mre! As baby animals grw they need slid（固体的）fd. Baby lins eat what their mther can catch.
31. Which baby animals dn't pen their eyes fr at least five mnths?
A. Lins. B. Zebras. C. Kangars. D. Elephants.
32. What can't a baby zebra d an hur after she is brn?
A. Drink milk. B. Walk by herself.
C. Run. D. make a circle t prtect herself.
33. What des the underline wrd “puch” in paragraph I mean?
A. bag B. muthC. teeth D. hand
34. Frm the text, we can knw that _______.
A. Baby wlves are ften brn in the pen. B. Newbrn lins nly eat slid fd.
C. Newbrn mnkeys can walk but can't jump. D. Baby bears need lts f fat t keep warm in winter.
35. What's the passage mainly abut?
A. Peple shuld prtect animals. B. Animals grw up in different ways.
C. We live with animals tgether. D. Animals are very imprtant.
C
配对阅读。左栏是5个人的爱好或特长的描述，右栏是7个活动简介。请为左栏的每一个人选择一个最合适的活动。
四、短文填空（本大题有10小题，每小题1. 5分，共15分）
请阅读下面这篇文章，在所给的每个空格中填入一个形式正确、意义相符的单词。
Hw d yu usually g t wrk, by bus r by bike? My family have different ways f ging utside.
My parents wrks in a hspital. The hspital is 41 frm ur hme. It is abut 25 kilmeters, s they g t wrk 42 car. The traffic（交通）is heavy and it 43 them abut frty-five minutes. My sister has a clthes stre. It's abut tw kilmeters frm her 44 t ur hme. She usually gets up at 7: 00 and leaves hme at 7: 50. She 45 there every day. She thinks walking is gd 46 health.
I'm a middle schl student. After breakfast, I take the schl bus t schl. Many students 47 taking the schl bus is bring, but I dn't think s 48 I can talk with my classmates n the bus. It gives me a lt f 49 .
What abut yur family? D yu have the same way f ging utside r different? Please 50 me abut that. I'm waiting fr yur answers.
五、读写综合（本大题分为A、B两部分，共25分）
A. 回答问题（本题有小题，每小题2分，共10分）。
请阅读下面这篇文章，根据所提供的信息，回答5个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、语义完整。
51. Hw lng d Jack's family exercise every day?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
52. What club des Jack jin?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
53. What des Jack always talk t his parents abut?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
54. When des Jack say "I lve yu" t his parents?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
55. Hw many rules are there in the passage?
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
B. 书面表达（本题15分）
假设你是交换生Tm，学生会正在征询对学校现有校规的意见。请你用英语写一封信给学生会主席李华，谈谈你的看法。
内容包括：
（1）告知你写信的目的。
（2）列举二至三条你认为好的校规。
（3）列举一至二条你认为需要修改的校规，并说明原因。
作文要求：
（1）不能照抄原文，不得在作文中出现学校的真实姓名和考生的真实姓名。
（2）语句连贯，词数70词左右，作文的开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Li Hua,
My name is Tm, an exchange student frm Class One, Grade Seven. __________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
I am lking frward t yu replay.
Yurs,
Tm
2022-2023学年下学期中段限时训练七年级英语参考答案
一、语法选择（本题有10小题，每小题1分，共10分）
1-5 CBACB 6-10 ABBAC
二、完形填空（本大题有15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
11-15 ACADB 16-20 CBCAB 21-25 CADBC
三、阅读理解。（本大题有15小题，每小题2分，共30分）
26-30 DACBA 31-35 CDADB 36-40GDABE
四、短文填空。（本大题有10小题，每小题1. 5分，共15分）
41. far 42. by 43. takes 44. stre 45. walks
46. fr 47. think 48. because 49. fun 50. tell
五、读写综合。
A. 回答问题（本大题有5小题，每小题2分，共10分）。
51. They play sprts fr ne hur every day. /Fr an hur.
52. Jack is in the schl swimming club. /He jins the schl swimming club. / The swimming club.
53. He always talks abut his schl and friends. /His schl and friends.
54. He always says “I lve yu” t his parents in the mrning befre he ges t schl and in the evening befre he ges t bed. /In the mrning befre he ges t schl and in the evening befre he ges t bed.
55. Three. /3.
B. 书面表达。（本题15分）
略
评卷组长根据《中山市初中英语笔试主观题评分标准》（2020年6月）制定具体评分细则。
小榄镇2022-2023学年下册英语中段限时训练题试卷
七年级英语主观题评分细则
四、短文填空。（本大题有10小题，每小题1. 5分，共15分）
41. far 1. 5分；其他0分
42. by 1. 5分；其他0分
43. takes 1. 5分；take 1分；taking0. 5分；其他0分
44. stre/shp 1. 5分；stres/shps 1分；其他0分
45. walks 1. 5分；walk 1分；walking0. 5分；其他0分
46. fr 1. 5分；其他0分
47. think 1. 5分；thinks1分；thinking 0. 5分；其他0分
48. because 1. 5分；其他0分
49. fun 1. 5分；funs0. 5分；funny0. 5分；其他0分
50. tell 1. 5分；tells 1分；telling 0. 5分；其他0分
五、读写综合。
A. 回答问题（本大题有5小题，每小题2分，共10分）。
A. 回答问题（共5小题，每小题2分）
基本标准： （1）所写答案信息准确、语法正确、语义完整，给满分。
（2）所写答案信息不完整，每题扣1分；
（3）出现无关信息，每题扣0. 5分；
（4）信息错误不给分。
（5）所写答案信息准确，语义完整，语法有误，每处扣0. 5分。
（6）句子没有主语扣0. 5分；
（7）末尾没有写句号，不扣分。
51. They play sprts fr ne hur every day. /Fr an hur. 2分
没有fr 扣0. 5分；
52. Jack is in the schl swimming club. /He jins the schl swimming club. / The swimming club. 2分；
Jins the schl swimming club. 1. 5分
Swimming club 1. 5分
Swimming. 1分
53. He always talks abut his schl and friends. /His schl and friends. 2分
Schl 1分；
Friends 1分；
54. He always says “I lve yu” t his parents in the mrning befre he ges t schl and in the evening befre he ges t bed. /In the mrning befre he ges t schl and in the evening befre he ges t bed. 2分
In the mrning befre he ges t schl 1分
In the evening befre he ges t bed. 1分
Befre he ges t schl. /In the mrning. 1分
Befre he ges t bed. /In the evening. 1分
55. Three. /3. 2分；
B. 书面表达（1题，共15分）
1.评分原则与方法：
从内容与语言两方面予以分档给分。内容方面要求考生能完整地按写作要点进行表述，要点详略得当、表述合理，词数符合写作要求。语言方面要求学生表达准确连贯、 符合逻辑。允许学生合理运用原文句式结构，但不可以照抄原文。如考生把文章所给出的开头部分抄写在答题卡上，不扣分（即使抄写有错误）。
2.内容分与语言分的分配
内容分：6分
（1）告知你写信的目的 1分
（2）列举二至三条你认为好的校规 2分
（3）列举一至二条你认为需要修改的校规 2分
说明原因 1分
内容要点完整且词数符合写作要求的作文可以得6分，词数在70个以下的作文在内容分上酌情扣分。
语言分：9分 (确定语言分档次时考虑内容的涵盖)
第一档：8-9分
要求：内容涵盖所有的要点，表达准确，意思连贯，符合逻辑，只有个别不影响交际的语言错误。
第二档：6–7分
要求：内容涵盖绝大部分要点，表达清楚，意思连贯，符合逻辑，但有少量语言错误。
第三档：4–5分
要求：内容涵盖大部分要点，表达较为清楚、连贯，基本符合逻辑，但有一些语言错误。
第四档：1–3分
要求：内容涵盖部分要点，能写出少数正确句子，但整体表达不太连贯，且语言错误较多。
第五档：0分
空白卷或完全没有相关内容。
注：以上答案及评分标准仅供参考。Welcme t new Zhngshan Museum
Cme and learn the lcal culture and histry f Zhngshan. There is smething fr everyne.
※Opening hurs:
Tuesdays-Sundays, 9: 00-17: 00 （N entry after 16: 30）
Clsed n Mndays （Except public hlidays）
※Visitrs: Peple f all ages are welcme. Children under 10 shuld cme alng with their parents.
※Ticket Price: Free
※Hw t bk a ticket?
Fllw id: zhngshanmuseum dyh n Wechat, and bk at least I day befre （3 days tp）. Every persn can nly bk5 tickets mst every day.
※Free Guide Service:
If yu need a museum guide, please cme t the Receptin f the Hall.
※Tur tips in the museum: N eating.
N pets.
N vides.
D nt use flashlight while taking phts.
Be quiet.
※Cntact infrmatin:
Website: www. zsmuseum. cn
Tel: 0760-88230200
Address: N. 197 Sun Wen Zhng Lu, Shiqi District, Zhngshan City
（ ）36. Kate is a guitar lver. She wants t learn t play the guitar. She is free n the weekend.
（ ）37. Jim is gd at playing the pian. He wants t have a part-time jb as a pian teacher.
（ ）38. Tina is interested in singing. She wants t sing with thers and have a shw tgether.
（ ）39. Jane likes dancing very much. She has learned dancing fr three years. She can dance t the music.
（ ）40. Jill is an art teacher in a middle schl. Nw she wants t jin a club and help thers with drawing
A. D yu like singing? We need singers fr the schl shw. Cme and jin us if yu are interested in singing sngs.
B. Are yu gd at dancing? D yu want t be a gd dancer? Our schl dancing team needs gd dancer. Welcme t jin us.
C. Mr. Wang is a gd guitar teacher. He is gd at teaching thers hw t play the guitar n weekdays. Please call 764-3290.
D. Can yu play the pian well? We want sme pian teachers t teach students frm middle schls. If yu can, cme t help us.
E. Are yu an art teacher? Our club needs smene t teach ur students t draw. Cme here, please.
F. Our stre sells great guitars, vilins, pians and drums. Please cme t ur stre and buy ne.
G. D yu want t play the guitar better? Yu can jin us. We have class n weekends. We have the best teachers fr guitar.
Jack has a happy family. There are sme rules in his family.
Keep healthy
Being healthy is imprtant. Jack's family play sprts fr ne hur every day. Jack is in the schl swimming club. And his parents run every mrning.
Evening time is family time
They can't watch TV r play cmputer games after dinner. The family usually sit n the sfa and talk. Jack always talks abut his schl and friends. Smetimes they take a walk tgether.
Always say “I lve yu” and “thank yu”
Jack always says “I lve yu” t his parents in the mrning befre he ges t schl and in the evening befre he ges t bed. His parents say it t him t. When Jack helps his mther, she says “thank yu”. They shw their lve and thanks all the time.
Jack gets n well with his family. He lves his parents very much. He thinks respect, understanding and sharing make them clser. Nt all rules are strict. Everybdy can make sme warm rules fr a happy family.
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