2023-2024学年山东省枣庄五中七年级(下)第一次月考英语试卷
展开这是一份2023-2024学年山东省枣庄五中七年级(下)第一次月考英语试卷,共5页。试卷主要包含了听力部分,完形填空,阅读理解,语法填空,阅读表达,根据汉语意思填词等内容,欢迎下载使用。
第Ⅰ卷(选择题,共55分)
一、听力部分(听力选择题共3节,1~15小题,每小题1分,满分15分;听力填空题1节,第Ⅱ卷46~50小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
第一节 根据你听到的内容,选出相应的图片。录音读两遍。
A. B. C. D.
E. F. G. H.
1. 2 ______ 3, 4. 5.________
第二节 根据你听到的内容,判断下列句子是否符合你听到的对话内容,符合的用“T”表示,不符合的用“F”表示。录音读两遍。
6. Bb’s hme and his grandparents’ hme are big.
7. Bb’s grandparents’ hme is far frm his hme.
8. Bb’s grandparents’ hme is abut 600 kilmeters frm his hme.
9. Bb ges t see his grandparents three times a year.
10. Bb gets t his grandparents’ hme nly by bus.
第三节 你会听到五个学生的谈论。从A到E的列表中,为每个说话者选择表达每个人观点的字母。每个字母只用一遍。录音读三遍。
二、完形填空(每空1分,共10分)
Dear Peter,
Lng time n see.My schl life is very clrful(多彩的).We have sme 16 in ur schl this term!﹣ the music club,the chess club,the sprts club and s n.I want t 17 the sprts club.I can play basketball,vlleyball and tennis.Basketball is my 18 .I think itˈs interesting and 19____.
Lin Shuha is my favrite basketball star.He plays basketball very 20 .I want t be a 21___ player like him.
Mary is my classmate.She likes 22 .She can sing and dance.And she can play the pian, 23 .S she wants t be in the music club.Hw abut Tm?He is gd at drawing.He likes 24 in his free time.D yu knw 25_ club he wants t be in?Yes,itˈs the art club.What abut yu?Can yu write t me and tell me smething abut yur hbbies (爱好)?
Yurs,
Paul
16. A. classes B. subjects C. shws D. clubs
17. A. talkB. helpC. jinD. teach
18 A. hmeB. favriteC. centerD. club
19. A. bringB. relaxingC. busyD. difficult
20. A. OKB. fineC. gdD. well
21. A. vlleyballB. basketballC. ping﹣pngD. tennis
22. A. musicB. sprtsC. EnglishD. phts
23. A. alsB. tC. nlyD. very
24. A. telling striesB. playing sccer
C. drawing picturesD. playing the guitar
25. A. whereB. whC. hwD. what
三、阅读理解(每空2分,共40分)
A
My name is Kate. There are many rules in my life. I think these rules are imprtant fr me. At hme, I can't play cmputer games fr mre than (超过) half an hur. I think it is gd fr my study because I can have mre time t study. I must make the bed after I get up. And I must clean my rm every day. S my bedrm is always clean and tidy. My mther says keeping rm tidy is gd fr my health.
I study at Fuxing Middle Schl. At ur schl, we als have sme rules. We can't be late fr schl. S we must arrive at schl n time. We must get t schl befre half past seven in the mrning. We need t wear the schl unifrm every day. In the class, we have t be quiet. We can't listen t music. We can't eat in the class. We must eat in the dining hall. After class, we can't run in the hallways.
D yu have rules in yur life? Tell me abut it.
26. What des Kate think f the rules in her life? ______
A. Strict.B. Imprtant.C. Terrible.D. Interesting.
27. What time can Kate arrive at schl accrding t the passage? ______
A. At 7:35 a.m.B. At 7:40 a.m.C. At 8:00 a.m.D. At 7:25 a.m.
28. Hw lng can Kate play cmputer games accrding t this passage? ______
A. One and a half hurs.B. One hur.
C. Thirty-five minutes.D. Twenty minutes.
B
Jane Brwning wrks in a busy hspital (医院) in Bstn, the USA. On weekdays, she usually gets up at six ’clck in the mrning and has a shwer. Then she ges t wrk at seven ’clck.
Her husband (丈夫), David usually gets up at seven ’clck. He is a science teacher. They have ne sn. His name is Andy. Andy is thirteen. He ges t schl at seven thirty in the mrning with his father.
After Jane gets t the hspital, she talks t her patients and asks hw they are. Then she meets the new patients. At abut ne ’clck in the afternn she has lunch.
Usually Jane gets hme at six ’clck in the evening and she is very tired. But she lves her jb because she likes helping peple.
29. When des Jane g t wrk every day?
A. At 6:00 a.m.B. At 6:30 a.m.C. At 7:00 a.m.D. At 7:30 a.m.
30. What subject des David teach?
A. ScienceB. MathC. EnglishD. Art
31. What des the underlined wrd “patients” mean in Chinese?
A. 顾客B. 病人C. 游客D. 演员
C
I'm Bb.I ride t schl with my friends every mrning.I like riding.I leave hme at half past seven and get t schl at a quarter t eight.When the weather (天气) is nt gd,we take a subway.
I'm Lily.My huse isn't far frm the schl.I walk t schl with my sister every day.Our schl starts at half past eight and we leave hme at eight 'clck.
I'm Jack.It is a little difficult fr me t g t schl because I live very far.I leave hme early every mrning at half past six.First,I have t ride a bike.Next,I take a bat.Last,I walk.It's abut eight 'clck when I get t schl.
My name is Lisa.Every mrning,my father drives me t schl.It takes abut 20 minutes.After schl,my mther meets me and we take a bus hme.The bus ride takes abut an hur.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。(正确选T,错误选F)
( ) 32. Lily leaves hme at 8:30 schl days.
( ) 33. Jack ges t schl by bike→walking→bat every day.
( ) 34. It takes Lisa abut 20 minutes t get hme.
( ) 35. Lisa ges hme with her mther after schl.
阅读理解。(每小题2分,共10分)
D
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
My name’s Jenny. I’m 13 years ld. I’m frm the United Kingdm. Nw I live in China. ____36____ I g t schl frm Mnday t Friday. On Saturday and Sunday we have n classes. On Saturday I usually d my hmewrk ___37____ I like elephants very much because they’re smart. ____38____ He thinks they’re beautiful and kind. My mther likes giraffes. ____39____ S we usually stay in the z fr the whle day and watch them. We ften take phts f them. ____40____
A. Pandas are my favrite animals.
B. I’m a student f N. 16 Middle Schl.
C. They are ur gd friends.
D. On Sunday I ften g t the z with my parents.
E. But my father likes pandas.
F. Because she thinks they’re cute and interesting.
G. We g t the z n weekdays.
答题卡
第四部分 第一节 听力填空题(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
请根据所听内容完成下面的填空 (每空填一词),现在你有10秒钟时间阅读这五个小题,该短文读三遍。
41. She can’t ________ ________ n schl nights.
42. She has t wash the ________ after dinner.
43. She likes ________.
44. She has t g t bed at ________ ________.
45. She has t practice ________ ________ every weekend.
第二节 (共5小题,每小题1分,满分5分)
请根据音标写出下列单词。
46. It takes a lt f practice t play the ___________ [ˌvaɪəˈlɪn] well.
47. It’s a ____________ [ˈkwɔːtə(r)] t fur nw.
48. The ______________ [ˈvɪlɪdʒəz] spke French.
49. The _____________ [ˈkɪtʃɪn] is very clean.
50. The bread is very ________ _____[dɪˈlɪʃəs].
第三节 选词填空(共5小题;每小题1分,满分5分)
读下面短文,根据短文内容从方框中选出适当的词并用其正确的形式填空,把答案写在答题卡51~55小题空白处。
Many peple like pandas very much. They are very ___51___. Mst f them live in Sichuan, China. They have white hair, but their shulders (肩膀), legs, ears (耳朵) and eyes (眼睛) are black. Pandas are usually heavy, but they can climb (爬)trees like sme animals.
Pandas’ ___52___ fd is bamb leaves (竹叶).
But nw, there ___53___ nt many pandas in the wrld tday. Because sme peple cut dwn t many __54___, s pandas can nt find enugh (足够的) fd t eat.
I think we must ____55_________help them.
51.___________ 52.___________ 53._____________ 54.____________ 55._____________
五、语法填空(46~55小题,每小题1分,满分10分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词(介词、冠词、连词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
There ____56_____(be) a z in my neighbrhd. I like ____57_______(spend) time there ___58___ weekends. There are many___59__ (be) ( kind) f animals in the z. They cme ___60_ different cuntries. They are really lvely. I like the animals ___61__ they are kind f _____62_____(interest).
It’s afternn. I____63____(have) a great time with my friends in the z right nw. It’s sunny and warm. We are watching the animals. We are taking a lt f ___64___ (pht), t. My friend Tm _65__ (lve) t watch the mnkeys climbing arund.
56______________ 57._____________ 60.____________
61.______________ 62_____________ 65.____________
六、阅读表达(共5小题,计10分)
Dear Sally,
Thank yu fr yur e-mail and the phts f New Yrk. Here are sme phts f my family trip in Wuhan. In the first pht, my sister Jane is wearing Chinese traditinal (传统的) clthes n the Yellw Crane Twer (黄鹤楼). In the secnd picture, my father and I are swimming in a river. It’s s cl! In the next picture, my parents, Jane and I are eating a kind f great ndles. Its name is ht dry ndles. It tastes very nice!
In the last picture, my family are at my friend’s hme. We are having sme mncakes because it’s the Mid-Autumn Festival (中秋节). It’s an imprtant festival in China. On this day, all the families get tgether and have a happy dinner.
I think Wuhan is a nice city in China. The peple there are friendly. One day I wish t g there again. Yurs David
根据短文内容,回答下列问题。
66. What is Jane ding in the first pht?
______________________________________________________.
67. Where are the writer and his father swimming in the secnd pht?
______________________________________________________.
68. What is the name f the ndles?
______________________________________________________.
69. Hw des the ndles taste?
______________________________________________________.
70. Why are they having sme mncakes?
______________________________________________________.
七、根据汉语意思填词(每空2分,10分)
71. 我上班从不迟到。 I never __________ ______ fr wrk.
72. Tny善于交朋友。 Tny is gd at ___________ ______ ______.
73. 我们的英语老师对我们很严格.
Our English teacher is very ___________ ______ ______us.
74. 晚饭后我要么看电视,要么弹吉他。
I ____________ watch TV ______ ______play the guitar after dinner.
75. 熊猫很可爱,但是他们处于极大的危险之中。
Pandas are very cut,but they're _____________ great ____________ .
八.书面表达(满分15分)
假如你是李明,Tm是你的好朋友,请根据表格内容写一篇短文介绍他的情况。
要求:(1)不少于80词;
(2)应包含以上提示内容,可适当发挥;
(3)文中不得出现真实的人名和校名。
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
________________________________________________________________________________ 11 . Speaker 1
12 . Speaker 2
13 . Speaker 3
14 . Speaker 4
15 . Speaker 5
A. Tm is playing cmputer games.
B. My mther is making sup.
C. My grandfather is watching Beijing Opera.
D. Gina is a gd English learner.
E. My father is reading newspapers.
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
29
30
31
32
33
34
35
36
37
38
39
40
Help friend tree favrite be
姓名
Tm
年龄
12
特长及加入的俱乐部
play basketball/sprts club
上学的交通方式
by bike
喜欢的动物及原因
pandas/cute
描述他及父母正在干什么
play basketball
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