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人教版（2024新版）七年级上册英语期末学业质量测试卷（含答案）
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这是一份人教版（2024新版）七年级上册英语期末学业质量测试卷（含答案），共12页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，补全对话 阅读对话,从每题A，完形填空 阅读短文,从每题a，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
选择题部分共100分
一、听力测试。(30分)
A)听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
()1. A. Hw much are these apples?B. Hw much is tfu?
C. What’s the price f the ygurt?
()2. A. Bb can tell stries well.B. Bb tells stries t his sister.
C. Bb acts ut stries at hme with his sister.
()3. A. Can yu g t the shp with me?B. Can yu shw me yur shpping list?
C. D yu have the shpping list?
()4. A. I want t jin the cking club.B. What club d yu want t jin?
C. He wants t jin the nature club.
()5. A. Tmrrw is Bb's birthday.
B. Bb will celebrate his birthday with his friends tmrrw.
C. Bb has a birthday party this afternn.
B)在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的 正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
()6. What time des Mary get up?
A. At five 'clck.B. At six 'clck.C. At six thirty.
()7. What date is Bb's sister's birthday?
A. On February 3rd.B. On March 22nd.C. On May 20th.
()8. What can Lily d?
A. She can sing.B. She can dance.C. She can play the guitar.
()9. What’s the girl’s favurite subject?
A. Gegraphy.B. Histry.C. Bilgy.
()10. What time des Gina usually g t bed?
A. 10 ： 15 p.m.B. 9 ：30 p.m.C. 9 ：45 p.m.
C)在录音中,你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确 答案。对话读两遍。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。
()11. When is Cindy’s mum's birthday?
A. On June 1st.B. On July 1st.C. On January 1st.
()12. What activity is n June 2nd?
A. A schl trip.B. A family trip.C. A bk sale.
()13. Wh des Cindy want t ask t the party?
A. Her friends.B. Her classmates.C. Her cusins.
()14. Hw many activities d they have this week?
A. TwB. Three.C. Fur.
()15. What is the cnversatin abut?
A. Cindy's family.
B. Cindy's family activities and dates.
C. Cindy and her father.
D)在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确 答案。短文读两遍。听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。
()16. What is Jenny's favurite subject?
A. Histry.B. Nature.C. Maths.
()17. When des Jenny ften g t the farm?
A. On Saturday mrnings.B. On Saturday afternns.C. On Sunday mrnings.
()18. Where is the farm?
A. It's behind the bank.B. It's acrss frm the park.C. Ifs in frnt f the plice statin.
()19. Hw is the farm?
A. Ifs very quiet.B. It's large.C. It's small but clean.
()20. Hw far is it frm the farm t Jenny's huse?
A. A 10-minute ride.B. A 15-minute walk.C. A 10-minute walk.
二、阅读理解 阅读下列短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句 子的最佳答案。(40分)
A
Here are tw pictures. A man and a by are in the first picture. Wh are they? Let me tell yu. The man is Mr White, and the by's name is Bill. He's the man's sn. Nw they are in Bill’s bedrm. Sme Chinese bks are n the desk. And n the bed, there is a shirt. Ifs Bill’s. His trusers are n the bed, under his shirt t.
Nw let's lk at the secnd picture. Yu can see a wman and a girl in it. The wman is Bill’s mther and she’s in her daughter Arm's bedrm. A pht f the Whites is n the white wall. Beside the bed, there is a desk. A clck is n the desk. What's that n the flr? Oh, ifs Ann's hat. But it lks like a brwn cat.
( )21. In the tw pictures, we can see __________ in ttal.
A. tw pepleB. three pepleC. fur pepleD. five peple
()22. Wh is Mr White?
A. He is Arm's brther.B. He is Ann's father.
C. He is Bill's friend.D. He is Bill's teacher.
()23. Where are Bill’s trusers?
A. On the bed.B. In the desk.C. On the flr.D. Under the desk.
()24. What clur is Ann's hat?
A. White.B. Brwn.C. Black.D. Red.
()25. In Arm's bedrm, we can see a__________.
A. catB. ballC. shirtD. clck
B
()26. Wh is Sam's favurite teacher?
A. Mrs Green.B. Mr Green.C. Ms Smith. D. Mr Smith.
()27. What’s Jack's favurite subject?
A. Histry.B. Music.C. Maths. D. Gegraphy,
()28. When des Amy have science lessns?
A. On Tuesday.B. On Wednesday.
C. On Thursday.D. On Friday.
()29. What time des Helen usually g t schl?
At 7 ：00 a.m. B. At 7 ：30 a.m. C. At 7 ：00 p.m. D. At 5 ：00 p.m.
()30. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Sam's favurite subject is maths.
B. Jack is 13 years ld.
C. Amy desn’t like Thursday.
D. Helen usually ges t schl at 7 ；30 in the mrning.
My name is Sam. Pm 13 years ld. My favurite subject is music. I dn't like science because it's bring. I usually d my hmewrk at 17 ：00 and I g t bed at 21 ：00. My favurite teacher is Mr Green.
Hi! My name is Jack. Fm 14 and my birthday is n Nvember 13th. Ms Smith is my favurite teacher. She teaches us maths. My favurite subject is gegraphy. I dn't like science. It's bring t me.
I'm Amy. Fm 13 years ld. I like t swim and paint. I want t jin the art club. I think art is very interesting. I dn't like science. I think it's bring. We have science n Thursday, s I dn't like Thursday.
My name is Helen. I'm 12. I usually g t schl at 7 ：00 in the mrning.
I think science is bring, but I like histry. I want t visit China ne day. I think China is very interesting.
c
There is a big and interesting family in the US.
Gaby Hagler is 40 years ld and Patrick Hagler is 51 years ld. They have seven children. They are 14-year-ld Kalleigh, 13-year-ld Paxtn, 3-year-ld Sammy and quadruplets(四胞胎)一Adam, Bennett, Cby and Dane.
Here is a picture f the quadruplets. They are abut ne year ld. The fur children lk the same, s it is nt easy fr the family t tell them apart (区分).After thinking ? the family have a cl idea. Clurs and animals can help them! Adam has a yellw andtheme (主题).Bennett has a brwn andtheme. Cby has a white andtheme. And Dane has a gray andtheme.
With these clurs and animals, the family find it easy t tell the quadruplets apart.
Hw interesting the family is!
()31. Which f the fllwing abut the family is TRUE?
A. The first child is 13 years ld.B. Paxtn is the secnd child.
C. There are seven peple in the family.D. Sammy desn't have any brthers r sisters.
()32. The underlined wrd “gray” is a kind f___________.
A. clurB. nameC. pictureD. animal
()33. Please match(匹配)①一④(names) t a—d(animals).
① Adam ② Bennett ③ Cby ④ Dane
A.①—a；②—d；③—c；④—bB.①—a；②—c；③—d；④—b
C.① - d；②—a；③ - c ；④—bD.①—d ；②— c ；③ — a；④—b
()34. What des the writer think f the family's idea?
A. Easy but bring.B.Difficult but cl.
C. Easy and fun.D.Difficult and bring.
()35. What is the best title fr the passage?
A. Clurs and AnimalsB.A Big and InterestingFamily
C. Hw t Find Quadruplets ApartD.Hw t Knw Clursand Animals
D(新素养♦文化意识)
What is a Chinatwn? Is it a twn in China? Of curse nt! It is in a freign cuntry. It is a place where many verseas (海外的)Chinese live tgether.
There are lts f Chinatwns in America. The biggest ne is in New Yrk. There are abut 150,000 peple in it. It is the hme f Chinese New Yrkers. And it is als a gd place t g.
Shpping in Chinatwn is fun. Yu can find lts f things there. Mst f them cme frm China. Mtt Street is the best place t shp because the things are very cheap.
Chinatwn has mre than 200 restaurants. Yu can enjy traditinal (传统的)Chinese fd there. New Silver Palace Restaurant is ne f the best restaurants. Why dn't yu have breakfast with a cup f green tea in it? Yu can eat sme Shanghai fd in Evergreen Restaurant.
Living in Chinatwn is great. Yu can find hspitals, schls, banks, libraries and supermarkets in it. In sme schls, students must study Chinese. ★ They want their children t learn mre abut China and its culture (文化).
()36. Why is the place called Chinatwn?
A. Because it has many Chinese buildings.
B. Because Chinese built it.
C. Because many verseas Chinese live there.
D. Because peple there speak Chinese.
()37. What makes Mtt Street the best place t shp?
A. There are different kinds f things.B. Mst f the things are made in China.
C. The things are at a lw price.D. The street is in New Yrk.
()38. What des "it" refer t in Paragraph 4?
A. Mtt Street.B. New Silver Palace Restaurant.
C. Evergreen Restaurant.D. New Yrk.
()39. Which sentence can be put in ”★" in the passage?
A. Overseas students enjy studying in these schls.
B. Many verseas Chinese let their children study in these schls.
C. Many Chinese parents wish their children t study better.
D. It's easy fr many verseas Chinese t study in the schls.
()40. What's the main(总体的)idea f the passage?
A. An intrductin f Chinatwn.B. The life f New Yrkers.
C. Shpping in Chinatwn.D. Chinese culture in Chinatwn.
三、(新素材•传统文化)阅读理解七选五 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(10分)
When a baby is ne year ld, there is a fun activity. Peple call it uzhuazhu". 41.____________
On that day, parents usually put a small table n the bed. On the table, there are sme bks, pens, rulers, fd, tys and s n. 42.____________The baby can take anything n it.
If a baby takes a bk, peple will say he r she will be gd at writing. 43.____________ When a baby takes a cake r a ty, peple will say he r she will knw hw t have a gd time in life.
44.____________After that, my grandfather calls him “wenha”. Nw my father is a writer and he writes a lt f gd bks.
45.____________
A. D yu think ifs interesting?
B. It is a traditinal activity n a baby's first birthday in China.
C. This is an imprtant activity arund the wrld.
D. If a baby takes a kitchen utensil(厨具),peple say he r she will ck delicius fd.
E. Fr example, my father takes a bk frm the table n his first birthday.
F. The baby sits n the flr.
G. Then parents put their baby at the table.
四、补全对话 阅读对话,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。(5分) A ： D yu get up very early, David?
B ： Yes. 46 Then I take a shwer and have breakfast at 7 ：00.47
A： Me? I get up at 9：00.
B： 48 .
A； Yes. I g t schl in the afternn.
B： 49
A： I usually d my hmewrk.
B ： Me t. 50
A： Oh, I dn't. I g t bed befre 9 ：00.
()46. A. I take a shwer at6 ：00.B.I have lunch atschl.
C. I get up at 6 ：00 andIrun.D.I get dressed at9 ：00.
()47. A. What abut yu?B.Hw abut yurbrther?
C. When d yu get dressed?D. When is yur birthday?
()48. A. Eight 'clck?B.Nine 'clck?
C. Ten 'clck?D.Eleven 'clck?
()49.A. When d yu have dinner? B. What d yu usually d in the evening?
C. What d yu have fr dinner? D. What d yu usually d in the afternn?
()50. A. I d my hmewrk at 7 ：00 and I watch TV at 9 ：00.
B. Then I have breakfast.
C. I usually take a shwer at six.
D. We ften exercise n weekends.
五、完形填空 阅读短文,从每题a、b、c、d四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答 案。(15分)
My name is Tm. I am a student f a junir high schl. I 51 up early every mrning, s I am never 52 fr schl. 53 breakfast, I ride my bike t schl. I think riding is gd fr my health.
I like my schl very much. There are sme clubs in my 54 Students can have 55 fun in these clubs. I really lve 56 and like singing sngs. 57 my free time, I ften sing sme sngs and listen t music, s I jin the 58 club. When schl is 59 n Tuesday and Thursday, the music club has activities. I make sme friends in the club because we have the same interest. I am always very happy t 60 with my friends.
I lve playing 61 a lt. I ften watch basketball games 62 TV. After schl, my classmates ften see 63 play basketball n the sprts field 64 they call me a fan f basketball. Of curse, Pm a member f my schl basketball club. The basketball club has activities 65 Mnday and Friday. Yu can see that I have club activities fur days a week.
What a clurful schl life I have!
()51.A.lkB. getC. gD.eat
()52.A.sameB. earlyC. lateD.smart
()53.A.FrntB. BehindC. BefreD.After
()54.A.schlB. hmeC. rmD.class
()55.A.funnyB. clC. greatD.bring
()56.A.phtsB. musicC. mviesD.bks
()57.A.InB. AtC. OnD.Off
()58.A.sprtsB. natureC. scienceD.music
()59.A.utB. lateC. verD.up
()60.A.talkB. cmeC. walkD.say
()61.A.ftballB. basketballC. ping-pngD.games
()62.A.atB. frC. inD. n
()63.A.usB. meC. herD.him
()64.A.butB. andC. becauseD. r
()65.A.nB. inC. withD. at
非选择题部分 共50分
六、阅读填词阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。(15分)
Michelle is a middle schl student. She is in the schl swimming club and she's really gd at swimming.
Every mrning, Michelle gets 66.__________at 6 ：00. Then she des sprt fr an hur at hme. After that she ges t schl at 7 ：30. Classes 67.__________( be) frm 8 ：00 a.m. t 3 ：30 p.m. Michelle has fur lessns in the mrning 68. __________tw in the afternn. She studies hard in 69. __________( she) lessns. After schl, she ges t 70. __________swimming club at 4 ；00 p.m. , and practises there fr an hur. Then she ges hme.
After dinner, she always 71.__________ (finish) her hmewrk first. Then she 72. __________( usual) watches swimming games n TV. She wants t learn frm the great swimming stars. She always ges t bed early, 73. __________she thinks getting enugh sleep is very imprtant. On weekends, Michelle ges t a sprts center t exercise and practise swimming. She swims tw 74.__________(hur) a day there.
Althugh the swimming training is very hard, she isn't afraid f it, and she always feels 75.__________(exciting) abut it. Her dream(梦想)is t be a swimming star and she is trying her best t make her dream cme true(实现).
七、书面表达。（35分）
第一部分情境运用根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。（10分）
A：___________________________________________________________ ?
B ： My sister is fur years ld.
A：___________________________________________________________ ?
B ： Pm frm Finland.
A：___________________________________________________________?
B： My mther's birthday is n March 5th,
A ： What des Keven d at 7 'clck every day?
B：___________________________________________________________.
A ： What’s yur favurite subject?
B：___________________________________________________________.
第二部分写作。（25分）
假设你是李华，下周你将和来自英国的Jenny作为交换生到对方的家里居住两个月。Jenny将住 在你的房间。她对此次中国游学之行既惊喜又忐忑，很想知道你房间的样子。请根据图片提示，给 Jenny发封电子邮件，介绍你房间的摆设。60词左右，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Jenny,
This is a pht f my rm.___________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hua
选择题部分共100分
一、听力测试。(30分)
A)听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
()1. A. Hw much are these apples?B. Hw much is tfu?
C. What’s the price f the ygurt?
()2. A. Bb can tell stries well.B. Bb tells stries t his sister.
C. Bb acts ut stries at hme with his sister.
()3. A. Can yu g t the shp with me?B. Can yu shw me yur shpping list?
C. D yu have the shpping list?
()4. A. I want t jin the cking club.B. What club d yu want t jin?
C. He wants t jin the nature club.
()5. A. Tmrrw is Bb's birthday.
B. Bb will celebrate his birthday with his friends tmrrw.
C. Bb has a birthday party this afternn.
B)在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的 正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
()6. What time des Mary get up?
A. At five 'clck.B. At six 'clck.C. At six thirty.
()7. What date is Bb's sister's birthday?
A. On February 3rd.B. On March 22nd.C. On May 20th.
()8. What can Lily d?
A. She can sing.B. She can dance.C. She can play the guitar.
()9. What’s the girl’s favurite subject?
A. Gegraphy.B. Histry.C. Bilgy.
()10. What time des Gina usually g t bed?
A. 10 ： 15 p.m.B. 9 ：30 p.m.C. 9 ：45 p.m.
C)在录音中,你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确 答案。对话读两遍。听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。
()11. When is Cindy’s mum's birthday?
A. On June 1st.B. On July 1st.C. On January 1st.
()12. What activity is n June 2nd?
A. A schl trip.B. A family trip.C. A bk sale.
()13. Wh des Cindy want t ask t the party?
A. Her friends.B. Her classmates.C. Her cusins.
()14. Hw many activities d they have this week?
A. TwB. Three.C. Fur.
()15. What is the cnversatin abut?
A. Cindy's family.
B. Cindy's family activities and dates.
C. Cindy and her father.
D)在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确 答案。短文读两遍。听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。
()16. What is Jenny's favurite subject?
A. Histry.B. Nature.C. Maths.
()17. When des Jenny ften g t the farm?
A. On Saturday mrnings.B. On Saturday afternns.C. On Sunday mrnings.
()18. Where is the farm?
A. It's behind the bank.B. It's acrss frm the park.C. Ifs in frnt f the plice statin.
()19. Hw is the farm?
A. Ifs very quiet.B. It's large.C. It's small but clean.
()20. Hw far is it frm the farm t Jenny's huse?
A. A 10-minute ride.B. A 15-minute walk.C. A 10-minute walk.
二、阅读理解 阅读下列短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句 子的最佳答案。(40分)
A
Here are tw pictures. A man and a by are in the first picture. Wh are they? Let me tell yu. The man is Mr White, and the by's name is Bill. He's the man's sn. Nw they are in Bill’s bedrm. Sme Chinese bks are n the desk. And n the bed, there is a shirt. Ifs Bill’s. His trusers are n the bed, under his shirt t.
Nw let's lk at the secnd picture. Yu can see a wman and a girl in it. The wman is Bill’s mther and she’s in her daughter Arm's bedrm. A pht f the Whites is n the white wall. Beside the bed, there is a desk. A clck is n the desk. What's that n the flr? Oh, ifs Ann's hat. But it lks like a brwn cat.
( )21. In the tw pictures, we can see __________ in ttal.
A. tw pepleB. three pepleC. fur pepleD. five peple
()22. Wh is Mr White?
A. He is Arm's brther.B. He is Ann's father.
C. He is Bill's friend.D. He is Bill's teacher.
()23. Where are Bill’s trusers?
A. On the bed.B. In the desk.C. On the flr.D. Under the desk.
()24. What clur is Ann's hat?
A. White.B. Brwn.C. Black.D. Red.
()25. In Arm's bedrm, we can see a__________.
A. catB. ballC. shirtD. clck
B
()26. Wh is Sam's favurite teacher?
A. Mrs Green.B. Mr Green.C. Ms Smith. D. Mr Smith.
()27. What’s Jack's favurite subject?
A. Histry.B. Music.C. Maths. D. Gegraphy,
()28. When des Amy have science lessns?
A. On Tuesday.B. On Wednesday.
C. On Thursday.D. On Friday.
()29. What time des Helen usually g t schl?
At 7 ：00 a.m. B. At 7 ：30 a.m. C. At 7 ：00 p.m. D. At 5 ：00 p.m.
()30. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. Sam's favurite subject is maths.
B. Jack is 13 years ld.
C. Amy desn’t like Thursday.
D. Helen usually ges t schl at 7 ；30 in the mrning.
My name is Sam. Pm 13 years ld. My favurite subject is music. I dn't like science because it's bring. I usually d my hmewrk at 17 ：00 and I g t bed at 21 ：00. My favurite teacher is Mr Green.
Hi! My name is Jack. Fm 14 and my birthday is n Nvember 13th. Ms Smith is my favurite teacher. She teaches us maths. My favurite subject is gegraphy. I dn't like science. It's bring t me.
I'm Amy. Fm 13 years ld. I like t swim and paint. I want t jin the art club. I think art is very interesting. I dn't like science. I think it's bring. We have science n Thursday, s I dn't like Thursday.
My name is Helen. I'm 12. I usually g t schl at 7 ：00 in the mrning.
I think science is bring, but I like histry. I want t visit China ne day. I think China is very interesting.
c
There is a big and interesting family in the US.
Gaby Hagler is 40 years ld and Patrick Hagler is 51 years ld. They have seven children. They are 14-year-ld Kalleigh, 13-year-ld Paxtn, 3-year-ld Sammy and quadruplets(四胞胎)一Adam, Bennett, Cby and Dane.
Here is a picture f the quadruplets. They are abut ne year ld. The fur children lk the same, s it is nt easy fr the family t tell them apart (区分).After thinking ? the family have a cl idea. Clurs and animals can help them! Adam has a yellw andtheme (主题).Bennett has a brwn andtheme. Cby has a white andtheme. And Dane has a gray andtheme.
With these clurs and animals, the family find it easy t tell the quadruplets apart.
Hw interesting the family is!
()31. Which f the fllwing abut the family is TRUE?
A. The first child is 13 years ld.B. Paxtn is the secnd child.
C. There are seven peple in the family.D. Sammy desn't have any brthers r sisters.
()32. The underlined wrd “gray” is a kind f___________.
A. clurB. nameC. pictureD. animal
()33. Please match(匹配)①一④(names) t a—d(animals).
① Adam ② Bennett ③ Cby ④ Dane
A.①—a；②—d；③—c；④—bB.①—a；②—c；③—d；④—b
C.① - d；②—a；③ - c ；④—bD.①—d ；②— c ；③ — a；④—b
()34. What des the writer think f the family's idea?
A. Easy but bring.B.Difficult but cl.
C. Easy and fun.D.Difficult and bring.
()35. What is the best title fr the passage?
A. Clurs and AnimalsB.A Big and InterestingFamily
C. Hw t Find Quadruplets ApartD.Hw t Knw Clursand Animals
D(新素养♦文化意识)
What is a Chinatwn? Is it a twn in China? Of curse nt! It is in a freign cuntry. It is a place where many verseas (海外的)Chinese live tgether.
There are lts f Chinatwns in America. The biggest ne is in New Yrk. There are abut 150,000 peple in it. It is the hme f Chinese New Yrkers. And it is als a gd place t g.
Shpping in Chinatwn is fun. Yu can find lts f things there. Mst f them cme frm China. Mtt Street is the best place t shp because the things are very cheap.
Chinatwn has mre than 200 restaurants. Yu can enjy traditinal (传统的)Chinese fd there. New Silver Palace Restaurant is ne f the best restaurants. Why dn't yu have breakfast with a cup f green tea in it? Yu can eat sme Shanghai fd in Evergreen Restaurant.
Living in Chinatwn is great. Yu can find hspitals, schls, banks, libraries and supermarkets in it. In sme schls, students must study Chinese. ★ They want their children t learn mre abut China and its culture (文化).
()36. Why is the place called Chinatwn?
A. Because it has many Chinese buildings.
B. Because Chinese built it.
C. Because many verseas Chinese live there.
D. Because peple there speak Chinese.
()37. What makes Mtt Street the best place t shp?
A. There are different kinds f things.B. Mst f the things are made in China.
C. The things are at a lw price.D. The street is in New Yrk.
()38. What des "it" refer t in Paragraph 4?
A. Mtt Street.B. New Silver Palace Restaurant.
C. Evergreen Restaurant.D. New Yrk.
()39. Which sentence can be put in ”★" in the passage?
A. Overseas students enjy studying in these schls.
B. Many verseas Chinese let their children study in these schls.
C. Many Chinese parents wish their children t study better.
D. It's easy fr many verseas Chinese t study in the schls.
()40. What's the main(总体的)idea f the passage?
A. An intrductin f Chinatwn.B. The life f New Yrkers.
C. Shpping in Chinatwn.D. Chinese culture in Chinatwn.
三、(新素材•传统文化)阅读理解七选五 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(10分)
When a baby is ne year ld, there is a fun activity. Peple call it uzhuazhu". 41.____________
On that day, parents usually put a small table n the bed. On the table, there are sme bks, pens, rulers, fd, tys and s n. 42.____________The baby can take anything n it.
If a baby takes a bk, peple will say he r she will be gd at writing. 43.____________ When a baby takes a cake r a ty, peple will say he r she will knw hw t have a gd time in life.
44.____________After that, my grandfather calls him “wenha”. Nw my father is a writer and he writes a lt f gd bks.
45.____________
A. D yu think ifs interesting?
B. It is a traditinal activity n a baby's first birthday in China.
C. This is an imprtant activity arund the wrld.
D. If a baby takes a kitchen utensil(厨具),peple say he r she will ck delicius fd.
E. Fr example, my father takes a bk frm the table n his first birthday.
F. The baby sits n the flr.
G. Then parents put their baby at the table.
四、补全对话 阅读对话,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案完成对话。(5分) A ： D yu get up very early, David?
B ： Yes. 46 Then I take a shwer and have breakfast at 7 ：00.47
A： Me? I get up at 9：00.
B： 48 .
A； Yes. I g t schl in the afternn.
B： 49
A： I usually d my hmewrk.
B ： Me t. 50
A： Oh, I dn't. I g t bed befre 9 ：00.
()46. A. I take a shwer at6 ：00.B.I have lunch atschl.
C. I get up at 6 ：00 andIrun.D.I get dressed at9 ：00.
()47. A. What abut yu?B.Hw abut yurbrther?
C. When d yu get dressed?D. When is yur birthday?
()48. A. Eight 'clck?B.Nine 'clck?
C. Ten 'clck?D.Eleven 'clck?
()49.A. When d yu have dinner? B. What d yu usually d in the evening?
C. What d yu have fr dinner? D. What d yu usually d in the afternn?
()50. A. I d my hmewrk at 7 ：00 and I watch TV at 9 ：00.
B. Then I have breakfast.
C. I usually take a shwer at six.
D. We ften exercise n weekends.
五、完形填空 阅读短文,从每题a、b、c、d四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答 案。(15分)
My name is Tm. I am a student f a junir high schl. I 51 up early every mrning, s I am never 52 fr schl. 53 breakfast, I ride my bike t schl. I think riding is gd fr my health.
I like my schl very much. There are sme clubs in my 54 Students can have 55 fun in these clubs. I really lve 56 and like singing sngs. 57 my free time, I ften sing sme sngs and listen t music, s I jin the 58 club. When schl is 59 n Tuesday and Thursday, the music club has activities. I make sme friends in the club because we have the same interest. I am always very happy t 60 with my friends.
I lve playing 61 a lt. I ften watch basketball games 62 TV. After schl, my classmates ften see 63 play basketball n the sprts field 64 they call me a fan f basketball. Of curse, Pm a member f my schl basketball club. The basketball club has activities 65 Mnday and Friday. Yu can see that I have club activities fur days a week.
What a clurful schl life I have!
()51.A.lkB. getC. gD.eat
()52.A.sameB. earlyC. lateD.smart
()53.A.FrntB. BehindC. BefreD.After
()54.A.schlB. hmeC. rmD.class
()55.A.funnyB. clC. greatD.bring
()56.A.phtsB. musicC. mviesD.bks
()57.A.InB. AtC. OnD.Off
()58.A.sprtsB. natureC. scienceD.music
()59.A.utB. lateC. verD.up
()60.A.talkB. cmeC. walkD.say
()61.A.ftballB. basketballC. ping-pngD.games
()62.A.atB. frC. inD. n
()63.A.usB. meC. herD.him
()64.A.butB. andC. becauseD. r
()65.A.nB. inC. withD. at
非选择题部分 共50分
六、阅读填词阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。(15分)
Michelle is a middle schl student. She is in the schl swimming club and she's really gd at swimming.
Every mrning, Michelle gets 66.__________at 6 ：00. Then she des sprt fr an hur at hme. After that she ges t schl at 7 ：30. Classes 67.__________( be) frm 8 ：00 a.m. t 3 ：30 p.m. Michelle has fur lessns in the mrning 68. __________tw in the afternn. She studies hard in 69. __________( she) lessns. After schl, she ges t 70. __________swimming club at 4 ；00 p.m. , and practises there fr an hur. Then she ges hme.
After dinner, she always 71.__________ (finish) her hmewrk first. Then she 72. __________( usual) watches swimming games n TV. She wants t learn frm the great swimming stars. She always ges t bed early, 73. __________she thinks getting enugh sleep is very imprtant. On weekends, Michelle ges t a sprts center t exercise and practise swimming. She swims tw 74.__________(hur) a day there.
Althugh the swimming training is very hard, she isn't afraid f it, and she always feels 75.__________(exciting) abut it. Her dream(梦想)is t be a swimming star and she is trying her best t make her dream cme true(实现).
七、书面表达。（35分）
第一部分情境运用根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。（10分）
A：___________________________________________________________ ?
B ： My sister is fur years ld.
A：___________________________________________________________ ?
B ： Pm frm Finland.
A：___________________________________________________________?
B： My mther's birthday is n March 5th,
A ： What des Keven d at 7 'clck every day?
B：___________________________________________________________.
A ： What’s yur favurite subject?
B：___________________________________________________________.
第二部分写作。（25分）
假设你是李华，下周你将和来自英国的Jenny作为交换生到对方的家里居住两个月。Jenny将住 在你的房间。她对此次中国游学之行既惊喜又忐忑，很想知道你房间的样子。请根据图片提示，给 Jenny发封电子邮件，介绍你房间的摆设。60词左右，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Jenny,
This is a pht f my rm.___________________________________________________________
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Hua
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