山东省济南东城逸家中学2024-2025学年八年级上学期开学测英语试题带答案
展开注意事项:
1.本试卷共六个大题;80个小题,全部答在答题卡相应区域,超出答题区域作答无效。
2.全卷满分100分,考试时间60分钟。
3.答卷前务必将姓名、班级、座号、考号等填、涂准确。
4.请用2B铅笔做选择题,用0.5mm黑色签字笔做非选择题。
选择题部分(70分)
一、听力测试。(每小题1.5分,共30分)
A)听录音,在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
( )1.A.I can sing English sngs very well.
B.D yu want t jin the swimming club?
C.I ride my bike t the bus stp.
( )2.A.We ften d hmewrk at schl.
B.The fish tastes gd.
C.Hw far is yur schl frm here?
( )3.A.Tm lives in a small twn.
B.His favrite subject is English.
C.Chris ften ges t schl by bus.
( )4.A.Schl starts at eight ’clck.
B.He can take the subway.
C.I g t schl by bus.
( )5.A.Lily is always late fr schl.
B.I will visit my uncle this week.
C.We g t the z and g shpping.
B)在录音中,你将听到五段对话,每段对话后有一个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
( )6.When des frm usually get hme?
A.At 5:00.B.At 5:15.C.At 5:30.
( )7.Peter usually watches TV ______.
A.n SundayB.n SaturdaysC.n weekends
( )8.Where is the girl’s brther?
A.In the bathrm.B.In the kitchen.C.In the bedrm.
( )9.Why did Jane g t the z?
A.T see the pandas.B.T see the mnkeys.C.T see the tigers.
( )10.When des Amy g t bed?
A.At abut nine.B.At abut half past nine.C.At abut ten.
C)在录音中,你将听到一段对话,对话后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。对话读两遍。(听对话前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间)
( )11.When des Marv get up?
A.At six ’ clck.B.At seven ’clck.C.At eight ’clck.
( )12.What des Dave like ding?
A.Running.B.Drawing.C.Singing.
( )13.What des Dave d in the mrning?
A.Runs.B.Plays the pian.C.A and B
( )14.What time des Mary usually g t bed?
A.At nine ’ clck.B.At nine thirtyC.At arund ten ’clck.
( )15.What des Mary usually d in the evening?
A.She usually plays sprts.B.She usually watches TV.C.She usually reads English.
D)在录音中,你将听到一篇短文,短文后有五个小题,从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。短文读两遍。(听短文前,你将有40秒钟的读题时间;听完后,你将有40秒钟的答题时间)
( )16.What des Peter d?
A.A teacher.B.A dctr.C.A student.
( )17.What des Peter d at seven tday?
A.He gets up.B.He has breakfast.C.He takes a shwer.
( )18.When des Peter learn English and Chinese?
A.in the mrning.B.In the afternn.C.In the evening.
( )19.What des Peter d after lunch?
A.He ges t schl.B.He des his hmewrk.C.He plays games.
( )20.What desn’t Peter d in the evening?
A.Plays the guitar.B.Watches TVC.Plays the vilin.
二、完形填空。阅读短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。(每小题1分,15分)
Why d children play with rabbit lanterns during Lantern Festival? Chinese peple celebrate Lantern Festival n the 21 day f the first lunar mnth(阴历月份). It’s the 15th, day f the Lunar New Year and it’s held t celebrate the first 22 mn r the year. It als 23 the end f the Spring Festival hliday. This year, the Lantern Festival is 24 5th February, 2023.
This day’s imprtant 25 is watching lanterns. The lanterns cme in many sizes, clurs and shapes. Making and 26 lanterns are famus things t d during the festival. There 27 usually riddles(谜语) n the lanterns. “Guessing lantern riddles” is 28 imprtant activity f the Festival.
Children g ut with paper lanterns when the 29 cmes during the Lantern Festival. Rabbit lanterns with wheels(轮子) are fun fr 30 . Children can pull them alng frm place t place. Children will hld self-made r take lanterns t 31 thrugh the streets excitedly.
Why rabbits? Sme peple say rabbits are 32 animals. The rabbit lanterns can bring children gd luck. Others say that in ld Chinese 33 abut a. jade rabbit (玉兔) living n the mn. Peple celebrate Lantern Festival n the 34 full mn f the year, s rabbits are a big part f the festival as well. Till tday, the lantern festival is still held each 35 arund ur cuntry. Children always have a gd time n that day!
21.A.firstB.middleC.lastD.final
22.A.bigB.smallC.fullD.bright
23.A.meansB.needC.includesD.meets
24.A.inB.atC.fD.n
25.A.interestB.activityC.timeD.place
26.A.watchingB.hearingC.BrrwingD.lending
27.A.isB.wasC.areD.were
28.A.neB.antherC.therD.sme
29.A.mrningB.nnC.afternnD.night
30.A.childrenB.parentsC.bysD.girls
31.A.leaveB.CmeC.gD.drive
32.A.bringB.BraveC.happyD.lucky
33.A.filmB.sngC.stryD.thing
34.A.firstB.secndC.thirdD.furth
35.A.dayB.mnthC.seasnD.year
三、补全对话。阅读对话,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案完成对话。(每小题1分,5分)
Tina: Hey, Jack. I didn’t see yu last week.
Jack: Hi, Tina. 36
Tina: Really? Did yu have a gd time?
Jack: Yes. I had great fun.
Tina: 37
Jack: I went t Yunnan.
Tina: Oh, Yunnan is a beautiful place. 38
Jack: Yes, I went there with my cusin.
Tina: 39
Jack: It’s great. We ate a lt f delicius rice ndles.
Tina: I am planning t g there next mnth.
Jack: 40
Tina: Thank yu.
36.A.Lng time n see.B.Nice t meet yu.
C.We stayed at hme.D.I was n vacatin.
37.A.Where did yu g?B.Hw much are they?
C.Where is she frm?D.Hw lng did it take?
38.A.When are yu ging?B.Were yur friends there?
C.Hw did yu g there?D.Did yu g with anyne?
39.A.Where did yu eat?B.What abut the fd there?
C.Was it very ht there?D.Culd yu eat ut with me?
40.A.They are s nice!B.We’re late fr class.
C.Have a gd trip!D.Dn’t d that again
四、阅读理解。阅读下列短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。(每小题1分,20分)
(A)
It is Saturday mrning. Adam’s father takes Adam t a park. They walk there because the park is nt far frm their huse. The father wants his sn t learn t ride a bike at the park.
But Adam is afraid f falling dwn(摔倒).“I can’t d it!” He sits next t his bike.
“Yu can,” his dad says:“ Maybe nt the first time yu try, r even the secnd time. The mst imprtant thing is t believe in (相信) yurself.”
“But I can’t!” Adam runs back t his huse. He thinks learning t ride a tw- wheeler is just t hard.
The next day, Adam sees the bike in the garage(车库).
“Hey, Dad! ▲?”
“Yu can’t ride it, s I put it ut f the way,” Dad says.
Adam desn’t like seeing his bike there. He clses his eyes and tries t picture himself riding it. The he says, “Dad, I believe I can d it nw!”
It takes sme mre tries, but Adam desn’t give up(放弃). Befre the day is ver, he can ride like the wind.
41.Hw d Adam and his father g t the park?
A.By bus.B.By car.C.By bike.D.On ft.
42.In the park, Adam ______.
A.runs a ltB.falls dwn
C.sits next t the bikeD.tries t ride many times
43.What is the mst imprtant thing?
A.T believe in yurself.B.T give up.
C.T find anther wayD.T depend n parents.
44.The best sentence fr “▲” is “______”.
A.Whse bike is itB.When can I learn t ride
C.What is my bike ding thereD.Hw abut riding my bike tday
45.What is the best title fr the passage?
A.I can d itB.I like ridingC.My dear fatherD.My favrite bike
(B)
Dear Kitty,
I am srry that I did nt write t yu earlier because I was very busy. I was helping with a charity shw t raise(筹集) mney fr Prject Green Hpe.(绿色希望工程)A lt f wrk needed t be finished, s I did nt have much free time.
I felt very happy when I was chsen t (被选为) be the hst. It was exciting, but I was als very nervus. I knw that lts f peple wuld cme t the shw and many pp stars wuld cme, t. My jb was t intrduce each star and I als had many ther duties.
We practiced a lt befre the shw. I had t remember t lk at the right camera at the right time. At first, I thught I wuld never be able t remember all the wrds. Slwly, everything became easier.
The big day came very quickly, and I was s excited. Twenty minutes befre the big event, we pened the drs and many peple came int the theatre t watch the shw. The fans f the pp stars were making a lt f nise, s I had t speak ludly.
30,000 dllars has been given t Prject Green Hpe. I hpe mre events like this will be rganized t raise mney fr charities and I think mre peple shuld be invited t take part in them.
See yu sn.
Best wishes!
Ricky
46.What was Ricky ding these days?
A.Helping t raise mney.B.Writing the letters.
C.Watching the shw.D.Inviting the pp stars.
47.Hw did he feel when he was chsen t be the hst?
A.Nervus.B.Happy.
C.Bth nervus and happy.D.Neither nervus nr happy.
48.Which statements is NOT true accrding t the letter?
A.Many pp stars wuld cme.
B.They practiced a lt befre the shw.
C.Ricky had t speak ludly because f the nise.
D.The dr was pen thirty minutes earlier befre the event.
49.What des the underlined wrd charity mean?
A.慈善B.招待C.明星D.服务
50.Hw much has been given t Prject Green Hpe?
A.3,000 dllarsB.30,000 dllarsC.3,000 pundsD.30,000 punds
(C)
D yu have t be very smart t live a happy life? The character f McDull (麦兜) tells yu that this is nt true. He is famus fr having a birthmark n his right eye. He is nt very clever, but he has a heart f gld. He is als happy, with lts f dreams. The piglet wants t visit the Maldives(马尔代夫). But his mther desn’t have enugh mney fr a trip there. S she lies t hum and takes him t a place called Hng Kng. The place has a sign that says “G t the Maldives.” It makes McDull very happy. He thinks he is really excited in the Maldives!
McDull is just a cmmn pig. He has many dreams, but they never cme true. That desn’t stp him trying. McDull lives his life in a simple and happy way. His idea twards life is “Never give up.”
The cartn pig character was created in Hng Kng by Alice Mark and Brian Tse. McDull first shwed up as a character in the McMug cmics. McMug is anther cartn pig. But McDull is mre ppular with a huge number f fans everywhere!
51.McDull is famus fr ______.
A.having a birthmark n his left eyeB.having a birthmark n his right eye
C.his wnderful characterD.visiting the Maldives
52.McDull is a very ______ pig.
A.cleverB.richC.friendly and kindD.lazy
53.What des McDull feel when he sees the sign “G t the Maldives.”?
A.sadB.unhappyC.angryD.excited
54.Where was McDull created?
A.In Hng Kng.B.In Japan.C.In America.D.We dn’t knw.
55.In the writer’s pinin, what kind f persn will live a happy life?
A.persn wh has t be very clever.B.A persn wh is simple with lts f dreams.
C.A persn wh is nt easy t give up.D.Bth B and C.
(D)
Everyne needs friends. There is an ld saying, " Friends are Gd’s way f taking care f us." But hw d yu find a real friend and keep it?
The American writer Sally Seamans tells yung students sme smart ways t find friends. Sally says finding friend is just like planting(种植) a tree. Yu plant it and take care f it t make it grw(成长).
First, yu shuld chse a friend. What makes a gd friend? It is nt because a persn has mney r gd lks. A gd friend shuld be kind and patient(耐心). Fr example, if yu have a bad day, a gd friend shuld listen t yur cmplaints and d his r her best t help. T make a friend, yu cannt be t shy. Yu shuld make each ther happy and share yur lives.
But things cannt always be happy. Even the best friends have fights. What shuld yu d when yu have a fight with yur friend? Yu have t talk t him r her. When there is n ne arund, have an hnest talk. If he r she desn’t want t talk, yu culd write a letter.
There are three steps t be friends again:
Tell him r her hw yu are feeling, say what yur friend has dne wrng, and explain why yu did this r that. Remember that friendship is the mst imprtant thing in yur life.
56.Sally wants t tell students the ways t ______.
A.find friendsB.plant treesC.get happyD.keep healthy
57.What makes gd friends? A gd friend shuld ______.
A.be lvely and clB.be kind and patient
C.have lts f mneyD.have gd lks
58.Accrding t(根据) the text, yu can ______ yur friend after a fight.
A.buy a present frB.never say a wrd t
C.have dinner withD.write a letter t
59.What can yu d when yur friend has a bad day?
A.Give him r her sme mney.B.D yur best t help him r her.
C.Plant sme trees.D.Share yur life.
60.What is the best title f the text?
A.Teenagers and friendship.B.The gd friends arund yu.
C.The truble f grwing up.D.The care and keeping f friends.
选择题部分(30分)
五、阅读理解七选五。根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项中有两项为多余选项。(每小题1分,5分)
Being utging is gd fr yur life. Thse wh are mre utging like t meet lts f peple and have mre fun in life. In fact, 61.______ Even(甚至), shy peple can be utging.
Yu can start becming utging with yur best friend r a grup f friends. But the real challenge(挑战) cmes 62.______ Smile mre, and usually they will return yur smile. In this way, 63.______ Start a talk. Just a simple “Hell” r “Hw is it ging” is a gd start. If yu want t make interesting talks, yu shuld read news in newspapers and prepare(准备) yur views, r surf the Internet fr new infrmatin and 64.______.
65.______ This is als the mst imprtant step(步) . G t a park, beach, club, party r any ther place that yu think can be fun, and yu may make new friends there.
六、语法填空。阅读下面的短文,在空白处填入一个适当单词或括号内单词的正确形式。(每小题1.5分,15分)
Emma is 66.______ American girl. Last mnth, she 67.______ (mve) t a new neighbrhd with her parents. She was very happy 68.______ (live) here.
The new huse is n Lng Street, just next t her schl , s she can gt t schl quite 69.______ (fast). It 70.______ (take) her nly five minutes t walk there! Acrss frm her huse, there 71.______ (be) a nice restaurant. She ften has lunch 72.______ her family there. Anther place she likes is a big bkstre. It’s between the restaurant 73.______ a bank. Peple can buy different 74.______ (kind) f bks there. The wner(老板) f the stre is very 75.______ (friend), and the prices are als gd. Every week, Emma spends time reading there. When she reads bks, time ges quickly.
七、书面表达
情景应用。请根据所提供的图画情景,用完整的句子完成下列各题。(每小题2分,10分)
76.
A: What is Tm ding?
B: __________________.
77.Lucy
A: __________________?
B: She has lng hair and wears glasses.
78.
A: Excuse me. __________________?
B: Yes, there is. It’s n Yushan Street.
79.
A: What did yur sister d last weekend?
B: __________________.
80.
A: __________________?
B: We’d like sme beef ndles.
参考答案
完形
21~25 BCADB26~30 ACBDA31~35 CDCAD
补全对话
36~40 DADBC
阅读理解
41~45 DCACA46~50 ACDAB51~55 BCDAD56~60 ABDBD
七选五
61~65 CBFDA
语法填空
66.an67.mved68.t life69.faster70.takes
71.is72.with73.and74.kinds75.friendly
情景运用
76.He is flying a kite.
77.What des Lucy lk like?
78.Is there a pst ffice near here?
79.She fed chickens.
80.What wuld yu like t eat?A.The easiest way t becme mre utging is t g ut.
B.when yu meet strange peple r new friends.
C.being utging is nt s hard as yu think.
D.then keep that in mind.
E.yu can give sme talks
F.yu may have sme talks.
G.and being utging is nt as easy as yu think.
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