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    山东省济南高新区东城逸家初级中学2024-2025学年七年级上学期开学测英语试题(无答案)

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    这是一份山东省济南高新区东城逸家初级中学2024-2025学年七年级上学期开学测英语试题(无答案),共8页。试卷主要包含了 09, A, It's bring等内容,欢迎下载使用。

    60分钟,总分150
    一、词汇部分(共50分)
    A. 看图片,选单词(5分)
    1. A. cm B. hat. C. cat
    2. A. televisin: B. telephneC. cmputer
    3. A. sandwich B. cake C. hamburger
    4. A. train: B. bat C. plane.
    5. A. classrm B. library C. supermarket
    B. 看图片,填写缺失的单词(5分)

    6. fly a ___________ 7. ___________ the flwers
    8. play ___________ 9. ___________ t the park 10. ___________ music
    C. 根据句意,完成句子(每空1分,共10分)
    1. 博物馆商店在哪里?
    ___________ is the ___________ shp?
    2. 她经常坐地铁来学校。
    She usually cme5t schl ___________ ___________.
    3. 我们打算买本新字典。
    We are ging t ___________ a new ___________.
    4. Peter 的爱好是什么?他喜欢读书和画画。
    What are Peter’s ___________? He likes reading and ___________.
    5. 冰箱里有一些西红柿和牛奶。
    There are sme ___________ and ___________ in the fridge.
    D. 连词成句(每句3分,共15分)
    1. are, brthers, thse, my (. )
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________2. number, phne, yur, is, what (? )
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________3. yu, what, ding, are (? )
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________4. have, she, desn't a, car (. )
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________5. they, what, did, last Friday, d (? )
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________
    E. 翻译句子(每句3分,共15分)
    1. 你早餐想吃点什么?
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________2. 你会洗衣服吗?
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________3. 我们班有五十名学生。
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________4. 我明天将会去看一场电影。
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________5. 你上周到哪里去了?
    ____________________________________________________________________________________________
    二、语法部分
    A. 句型转换(每空1分,共10分)
    1. He plays ftball every weekend. (改为一般疑问句)
    ___________ he ___________ ftball every weekend?
    2. Did Sarah g cycling yesterday? (作肯定回答)
    ___________, she ___________.
    3. My ruler is lnger than Mike's. (同义句转换)
    Mike's ruler is ___________ than ___________.
    4. She fell ff her bike yesterday. (改为否定句)
    She ___________ ___________ ff her bike yesterday.
    5. She usually reads a bk in the evening. (对划线部分提问)
    ___________ ___________ she usually read a bk?
    B. 用所给词的适当形式填空。(每空2分,共10分)
    1. I ___________ (take) pictures and bught gifts.
    2. We are ging t ___________ (have) a farewell party.
    3. She ___________ (write) a letter yesterday.
    4. There are sme ___________ (cw) in the z.
    5. Zhang Peng's shes are ___________ (big) than Jhn's.
    C. 阅读填空 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。(10分)
    It's 1 tday, the sixth day f a week. It's my favrite day 2 I have science and music. 3 (class) begin at 8: 00 in the mrning. The 4 (ne) class is Chinese. It's easy and interesting. Then at 9: 00 I have science. It's a little difficult 5 very. useful. I like it very much. I have histry at 10: 00. It's bring. I dn't like it. The furth class in the mrning is art. Then frm12: 00 t 13: 00 is lunch hur. I 6 (usual) have lunch at schl. I have tw classes in the afternn. They are music and gegraphy. I like music very much. My music teacher is very funny (有趣的) . And she 7 (sing) very well. Her classes are very 8 (relax) . My classmates all like 9 (she) . After schl, I play basketball with 10 (me) friends.
    D. 单项选择(每题2分,共20分)
    1. —_________. —I'm 48 kilgrams.
    A. Hw are yu? B. Hw heavy are yu? C. Hw heavy is it?
    2. Yu can g by bus. It's _________ than walking.
    A. lwer B. faster C. smaller
    3. —_________ did yu buy gifts fr? —My mther.
    A. What B. Wh C. Hw
    4. —What _________ are yur shes? —42.
    A. size B. clur C. type
    5. —Dad, please dn't make a phne call. Yu _________ a car nw.
    —Oh, srry! I wn't d it again.
    A. are driving B. drive C. drives
    6. —Andy, yu lk very happy tday. —Yes. My cat has a new kitten, I'm _________ excited.
    A. because B. but C. s
    7. Jim ften helps his mther d sme husewrk. He is _________.
    A. helpful B. hard- wrking C. strng
    8. —Is this yur bk? —N, it isn't _________. It's _________.
    A. mine; yurs B. mine; yur C. my; yurs
    9. Yu _________ play n the street.
    A. must B. shuld C. mustn't
    10. We shuld _________ rubbish. int the rubbish bin.
    A. thrw B. thrws C. thrwing
    11. My uncle gets his crps in _________ a machine.
    A. with B. by C. in
    三、阅读部分(总分50分)
    A. 完形填空 阅读短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。(10分)
    Tday is Lan's first day t a new schl. He is nt happy that mrning 1 he desn't knw anyne at his new schl.
    “I really want yu t g t schl with 2 ,” Lan lks at Timmy, his lvely dg.
    “Time t g,” Dad calls frm the frnt dr.
    “Cming!” Lan 3 his schlbag and ges t schl. Timmy is after him.
    “ 4 is that dg ging?” Dad asks.
    “T schl!” Lan laughs.
    A by cmes t him and says, “Yur dg is s 5 .” Lan is happy. He and the by talk n the way t 6 .
    A girl runs up t Timmy. “Lk at the little dg! He is s lvely!”
    When they get t schl, Lan's 7 says, “Srry. N 8 at schl.”
    Lan tells Timmy, “Yu can g hme nw. Thanks fr 9 me t make s many friends befre I get t schl!”
    Then Lan and his new friends say “ 10 ” t Timmy.
    1. A. r B. but C. because D. s
    2. A. me B. yu C. him D. her
    3. A. brings B. takes C. sells D. draws
    4. A. When B. Why C. Hw D. Where
    5. A. big B. ld C. nice D. fat
    6. A. the bedrm B. the library C. the stre D. schl
    7. A. teacher B. father C. mther D. brther
    8. A. bags B. dgs C. bks D. bys
    9. A. helping B. teaching C. telling D. asking
    10. A. Thanks B. Welcme C. Gdbye D. OK
    B. 阅读理解(每题2分,共30分)
    A
    Students Needed
    On Sunday, Octber 15th, frm 10 a. m. t 4 p. m. , Yucai Middle Schl will have a music festival at the schl playgrund. Sme famus singers will take part in it and all the music teachers will give a special shw. S we need sme students t help at the festival.
    If yu want t take part in the activities, yu shuld talk with Ms Braxtn, the music teacher. But yu must ask yur parents first.
    11. Which is TRUE accrding t the first paragraph (段落) ?
    A. The music festival will be n Saturday. B. The music festival will be at night.
    C. The music festival will be in the autumn. D. The music festival will be in a big classrm.
    12. If yu take part in the activities, what shuld yu d n September 15th?
    A. Clean up the playgrund. B. Make psters.
    C. Help perfrmers. D. Welcme guests.
    13. When shuld the students set up the playgrund?
    A. On September 15th. B. On Octber 14th.
    C. On Octber 15th. D. On Octber 16th.
    14. Hw lng des it take (花费) the students t clean up the playgrund?
    A. Three hurs. B. Fur hurs. C. Five hurs. D. Six hurs.
    15. If yu want t take part in the activities, what shuld yu d?
    A. Learn abut a kind f music. B. Take part in a special game.
    C. Learn a kind f freign language. D. Talk t Ms Braxtn, the music teacher.
    B
    Jim wants t visit his nline friend. He has enugh infrmatin (信息) t find her nw.
    Her name: Shannn Date f birth: Jan. 3rd, 2000
    Age: 16 Address: Nrth Carlina
    Hbbles: Sftball (垒球) , music, skating and ging t the mall
    She stays at hme by herself every afternn. Her parents cme back hme frm wrk at 6: 30 p. m. She plays sftball n Thursday afternns n the schl team. There is the number 7 n her jersey (运动衫) . She is in the seventh grade at Cantn Junir High Schl.
    16. When is Shannn's birthday?
    A. It's January the secnd. B. It's June the third.
    C. It's January the third. D. It's January the seventh.
    17. What des Shann n d n Thursday afternns?
    A. Play ftball. B. Play sftball. C. G t the mall. D. G skating.
    18. When d Shannn's parents cme back hme frm wrk?
    A. At 6: 30 p. m. B. At 6: 30 a. m. C. At 7: 00 p. m. D. At 7: 30·a. m.
    19. What is the number n her jersey?
    A. 7. B. 16. C. 8. D. 1.
    20. Frm the article, we can knw _________.
    A. Jim lives in Cantn. B. Shann n wants t meet Jim, t.
    C. Jim is Shannn's nline friend. D. Jim is in a middle schl.
    C
    My daughter Amy is seven and she is welcme in ur family. She cmes t me ne day. She has sme cards. They are green, purple, yellw, blue and black. But she asks me fr a red ne. I dn't knw the reasn (原因) but I help her find ne in my rm. She thanks me and says her favrite (特别喜欢的) clr is red.
    The next day in the mrning, she puts (放) a red ruler, a red pen, a red pencil and a red eraser in her pencil bx, and a red ntebk in her schlbag. Oh! She is crazy abut red. After schl, she asks me fr a red bed in her rm. A blue bed is in her rm, and it is nice. I knw her favrite clr is red, but I dn't think making everything red is gd.
    21. Hw ld is Amy?
    A. six B. seven C. eight D. nine
    22. Where is the red card?
    A. In Amy's rm. B. In Amy's mther's rm.
    C. In Amy's pencil bx. D. In Amy's schlbag.
    23. What d the underlined wrds “is crazy abut” mean in Chinese?
    A. 着迷 B. 关心 C. 厌恶 D. 冷淡
    24. What's in Amy's pencil bx?
    A. A red bk and a red card. B. A red pen and a red key.
    C. A red ruler and a red pencil. D. A red pencil and a red. ntebk.
    25. What can we infer frm the last sentence (我们可以从最后一句推断出什么) ?
    A. Amy's mther desn't buy a red bed fr her. B. Amy's mther desn't like red.
    C. Amy's mther's favrite clr is red, t. D. Amy's mther desn't like Amy.
    D
    After a relaxing weekend, children have t g back t schl n Mndays. Fr parents, they shuld d smething helpful t let their children get t schl n time.
    Let children take a gd shwer. It's gd fr children t take a shwer befre they g t bed. It can nt nly help them sleep well but als save time next mrning.
    Ask children t g t bed early. Schl generally starts at 8: 00 a. m. S please let yur children g. t bed befre 9: 30 p. m. Yur children shuld sleep fr abut nine hurs every day. This is quite imprtant as they have t get up early next day.
    Make a gd breakfast fr children. Breakfast can help children study better in the day. It can help students listen t teachers carefully and think well in class. Als, it's gd fr their health.
    Getting t schl n time is very imprtant (重要的) fr yur children. S please try yur best t help them. If yu can d the things abve, they will study and live happily.
    26. What shuld children d befre they g t bed?
    A. Take a walk. B. D sme reading. C. Watch TV. D. Take a shwer.
    27. Hw many hurs d children need t sleep every day accrding t the passage?
    A. Seven. B. Eight. C. Nine. D. Ten.
    28. Wh des the writer want t write the passage fr?
    A. Children. B. Parents. C. Mthers. D. Teachers.
    29. What's the main (主要的) idea f the passage?
    A. Parents need t ask children t g t bed early.
    B. Children have t take a shwer befre sleeping.
    C. Children must have a gd breakfast befre ging t schl.
    D. Parents shuld d smething t help children get t schl n time.
    30. The structure (结构) f the passage is _________.
    A. B. C. D.
    英语参考答案
    一、 词汇部分
    A. 看图选词 BACCA
    B. 看图填词 kite, water, basketball, g, listen t
    C. 完成句子
    1. where, museum 2. by subway 3. buy, dictinary 4. hbbies, painting 5. tmates, milk
    D. 连词成句
    1. Thse are my brthers. 2. What is yur phne number? 3. What are yu ding?
    4. She desn't have a car. 5. What did they d last Friday?
    E. 翻译句子
    1. What d yu want t eat fr breakfast?
    2. Can yu wash yur clthes?
    3. There are fifty- five students in ur class.
    4. I will watch a mvie tmrrw.
    5. Where did yu g last week?
    二、语法部分
    A. 句型转换
    1. Des, play 2. Yes, did 3. shrter, mine 4. desn't fall 5. When des
    B. 适当形式
    1. tk 2. have 3. wrte 4. cws 5. bigger
    C. 阅读填空
    Friday, because, classes, First, but, usually, sings, relaxing, her, my
    D. 单选
    BBBAACAACA
    三、阅读部分
    A. 完形
    CBBDC DABAC
    B. 阅读
    CBBAD CBAACWrk
    Time
    Date
    Make psters
    1 p. m. —4 p. m.
    September 15th
    Set up the playgrund
    11 a. m. —4 p. m
    Octber 14th
    Help perfrmers (表演者)
    9 a. m. —4 p. m.
    Octber 15th
    Welcme guests
    10 a. m. —2 p. m.
    Octber 15th
    Clean up the playgrund
    4 p. m. —7 p. m.
    Octber 15th
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