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    2023-2024学年四川省乐山市沐川县七年级(上)期末英语试卷

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    2023-2024学年四川省乐山市沐川县七年级(上)期末英语试卷

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    这是一份2023-2024学年四川省乐山市沐川县七年级(上)期末英语试卷,共13页。试卷主要包含了5分,满分7等内容,欢迎下载使用。

    本试卷分第一卷和第二卷两部分,共150分,考试时间120分钟。
    第一卷(选择题)答在答题栏内,第二卷(非选择题)用0.5mm黑色墨迹签字笔书写在试卷上。
    第一卷(满分100分)
    第一部分:听力(共三节,满分30分)
    做题时,先将答案标在试卷上,听力内容结束后,再将答案填在答题栏内。
    第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    听下面5段短对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
    1. Hw des Daming g t schl?
    A. By bike.B. On ft.C. By bus.
    2. When is Mark’s cmputer class?
    A. At 8:19.B. At 9:10.C. At 9:30.
    3. What clur is the tiger?
    A. Black and White.B. Brwn and white.C. Black and range.
    4. Hw des Frank smetimes d his hmewrk?
    A. By using the cmputer.B. With his mther’s help.C. On the paper.
    5. What d peple usually d at a Chinese birthday party?
    A. They watch TV.B. They make cards.C. They sing sngs.
    第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
    听下面5段较长对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第六段对话,回答第6--7小题
    6. Hw many ice creams des the by buy?
    A. Three. B. Fur. C. Five.
    7. Where are they talking?
    A. At hme.B. In a shp.C. At schl.
    听第七段对话,回答第8--9小题
    8. What des Jack get at Spring Festival?
    A. A cmputer.B. New bks.C. Hngba.
    9. What time des Jack g t bed?
    A. After 12:00 pm.B. At 12:00 pm.C. At 11:00 pm.
    听第八段对话,回答第10--12小题
    10. What subject is David gd at?
    A. English.B. Maths.C. PE.
    11. Wh thinks maths is fun?
    A. David.B. Han Mei.C. David and Han Mei.
    12. When is Han Mei free?
    A. On Friday afternn.B. On Saturdays.C. On Sundays.
    听九段对话,回答第13--15小题
    13. What des Susan want t see?
    A. Giraffes.B. Elephants.C. Mnkeys.
    14. What des Susan think f lins?
    A. She thinks they are dangerus.
    B. She thinks they are ugly.
    C. She thinks they are interesting and clever.
    15. Where are they giraffes?
    A. Over there n the right.B. Near the lins.C. Next t the elephants.
    听下面一段独白,回答第16--20小题
    16. When des Bill’s class start?
    A. At 7:30 am.B. At 8:00 am.C. At 8:30 am.
    17. What subject des he like?
    A. Maths.B. English.C. Science.
    18. What des he d at three ’clck?
    A. G hme.B. Have classes.C. Play ftball.
    19. What des he d after class?
    A. Play with his friends.B. D his hmewrk.C. G t the club.
    20. What des he like ding?
    A. Dancing.B. Drawing.C. Singing.
    第二部分 基础知识运用(共30小题,每小题1分,满分30分)
    第一节 单项选择(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    21. This is ________ Asian tiger and that is ________ Eurpean lin.
    A. a;a B. an;an C. an;a
    22. There ________ a pst ffice,a hspital and tw schls near here.
    A. is B. are C. has
    23. We have Chinese ________ half past eight ________ Mnday.
    A. at;n B. at;in C. fr;n
    24. My friend desn’t like music and he ________ ges t the cncert.
    A. always B. usually C. never
    25. --Is this ________ dictinary?
    --N,it isn’t. It’s ________ dictinary.
    A. yu;his B. yur;his C. yu;her
    26. What abut ________ mvies n the Internet?
    A. watch B. watching C. lking
    27. --Have they gt ________ apple juice?
    --N. But they have gt ________ range juice.
    A. sme;sme B. sme;any C. any;sme
    28. The zebra ________ in Africa,and it ________ eat meat.
    A. live;desn’t B. lives;isn’t C. lives;desn’t
    29. --________ d yu g fr a trip with yur family?
    --Abut nce a year.
    A. Hw ften B. Hw much C. Hw lng
    30. The zebra frm Africa eats ________.
    A. grass and leaves B. grass and leafC. grasses and leaves
    31. She always ________ a lt f time watching TV.
    A. lets B. takes C. spends
    32. --Can Jim ________?
    --Yes. Lk!He ________ nw.
    A. swimming;swims B. swim;is swimming C. swims;swimming
    33. We all like Mr Lu ________ her lessns are interesting.
    A. s B. and C. because
    34. --What’s yur father’s jb?
    --__________.
    A. He’s fine B. He’s a factry manager C. He’s at hme
    35. --Wuld yu like t visit the z with me tmrrw?
    --__________.
    A. Yu are welcme B. Yes,I’d like tC. Yes,I d
    第二节 完形填空(共15小题;每小题1分,满分15分)
    阅读下面两篇短文,选择一个能填入空白处的最佳选项。
    A
    I am an American by. I am thirteen. I 36 in N. 14 Middle Schl in Shanghai. I ften get up 37 half past six frm Mnday t Friday. I ften have sme milk,an egg and sme bread fr 38 . I g t schl at half past seven and get there befre eight ’clck, and 39 start at eight.
    We have fur lessns in the mrning and tw in the afternn. At half past three,we
    40 games. I study hard and study well. I like English and I am gd at it. Mike is 41
    gd friend. We g hme tgether. I usually d my hmewrk at hme,but smetimes at schl. I like watching TV very much, 42 I can nly watch it n Saturday and Sunday. I ften g t bed at abut nine ’clck.
    36. A. stay B. study C. live
    37. A. in B. n C. at
    38. A. breakfast B. lunch C. supper
    39. A. films B. wrks C. lessns
    40. A. make B. play C. hear
    41. A. my B. his C. her
    42. A. and B. s C. but
    B
    Mlly gets an email this mrning. It is 43 her friend Lisa. It writes, “Cme t Happy Hur (a restaurant) at 7:00 pm.” Mlly and Lisa ften eat there. After wrk, Mlly ges back hme and 44 a beautiful dress. When she gets there, she sees many f her 45 . Lisa walks up t Mlly and takes her t the table. Then all the peple start 46 Happy Birthday t Yu. “Oh, tday is 47 birthday!” Mlly says. “I frgt (忘记) it. 48 fr remembering my birthday, my friends.” Lisa gets ut a big birthday cake. She cuts a big piece fr Mlly. Other friends 49 Mlly presents. Mlly is very 50 . She has gd friends and a special birthday.
    43. A. frmB. t C. with D. fr
    44. A. buys B. chsesC. checks D. catches
    45. A. parentsB. sisters C. friends D. students
    46. A. drawingB. singing C. reading D. learning
    47. A. herB. his C. my D. yur
    48. A. GdbyeB. Hell C. Srry D. Thanks
    49. A. watchB. give C. make D. begin
    50. A. strngB. imprtant C. beautiful D. happy
    第三部分 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分,满分40分)
    阅读下列短文,从每小题所给的选项中选出一个最佳选项。
    A
    Cme and see the Indian elephants and the new tigers frm America. The bears are waiting t meet yu, and the mnkeys frm China are waiting t thrw(扔) things at yu. The lvely kangars frm Australia are waiting t laugh at yu, and the giraffes frm Zambia are waiting t lk dwn n yu.
    51. Hw many kinds f animals are talked abut in the passage?
    A. Fur. B. Five. C. Six.
    52. Mr Liu is in the z with his tw sns;ne is 14 years ld and the ther is 10 years ld. Hw much are the tickets tgether?
    A. ¥20. 00. B. ¥30. 00. C. ¥40. 00.
    53. Which f the fllwing is the visiting time?
    A. 8: 30 am n Mnday. B. 9: 30 am n Sunday.C. 3: 00 pm n Friday.
    54. Where are the elephants and the tigers frm?
    A. India and America. B. America and England.C. Australia and America.
    55. Which f the fllwing can we d in the z?
    A. Give sme fd t the fish.
    B. Tuch the mnkey n the head.
    C. Take a few nice phts.
    B
    It’s seven ’clck in the mrning in Chennai, India. Lavin always has her mrning bath(洗澡) befre schl. But she desn’t have a bath at hme. She has a bath in a small river utside with her best friend, a baby elephant.
    Lavin lives at Arignar Anna Z with her parents, brthers and sisters. Her father wrks at the z and he is a special keeper fr the baby elephants. Lavin is nly six years ld, but she can cntrl(控制) the elephants and she has a very special friendship with them.
    At eight ’clck in the mrning, Lavin ges t schl, but she desn’t take the schl bus. She rides an elephant t schl. After schl, Lavin plays ftball with her elephants.
    Nw it is evening, and the baby elephants are tired. Lavin sits next t them and sings t them. Smetimes, they all sleep tgether — friends tgether in the day and friends tgether at night.
    56. Where des Lavin have her mrning bath?
    A. In a bathrm.B. At hme.C. In a river.
    57. Why des she live at Arignar Anna Z?
    A. Because her father wrks there.
    B. Because she likes elephants.
    C. Because she has a big family.
    58. Hw des she g t schl?
    A. An elephant takes her t schl.
    B. Her father drives her t schl.
    C. She walks t schl with an elephant.
    59. What des she usually d after schl?
    A. She sings sngs t the elephants.
    B. She plays ftball with the elephants.
    C. She sleeps with the elephants.
    60. What’s the best title f the passage?
    A. Lavin’s Family.B. Lavin’s Jb.C. Lavin’s Best Friends.
    C
    Birthdays are imprtant fr everyne. Different cuntries have different custms. If yu are in Japan, yu need t knw hw t wish peple a happy birthday.
    ◆Yu shuld be plite.
    Japanese are plite at all times. When yu talk with peple, it’s best t use the plite Japanese wrds.
    If yu want t greet smene wh is lder than yu, yu may say smething t shw mre respect.
    ◆G t a party.
    If they invite yu t the party, yu shuld feel very happy because they dn’t ften invite t many peple. The family usually g ut fr a big dinner t celebrate the day. Peple als sing the “Happy Birthday” sng in Japanese at the party. They als blw(吹) ut candles n a cake.
    ◆Give gifts.
    Giving gifts is nt an ld Japanese custm. They learn it frm the West. It’s plite t give gifts with bth hands, and als t receive presents with bth hands. The receiver(接受人) desn’t usually pen the gift in frnt f yu.
    61. Yu shuld ________ when yu talk with peple in Japan.
    A. be happyB. use the plite Japanese wrds
    C. give gifts t friendsD. g ut fr a dinner
    62. What’s the Chinese meaning f the underlined wrd “celebrate”?
    A. 宣传B. 宽容C. 庆祝D. 忘记
    63. The passage may be fr ________.
    A. Japanese pepleB. Chinese peple
    C. visitrs in JapanD. visitrs in China
    64. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
    A. Japanese are always plite.
    B. Japanese ften invite t many peple t have birthday parties.
    C. Japanese usually sing the “Happy Birthday” sng in English.
    D. Giving gifts is an ld Japanese custm.
    65. Frm the passage, we can learn ________.
    A. Japanese histryB. Chinese birthday custms
    C. hw t say “Happy Birthday”D. Japanese birthday custms
    D
    Mike is a by frm Beijing. He likes the summer hliday (暑假). The summer hliday is cming. Mike’s mther is planning a trip t Hng Kng with her sn, because Mike’s aunt lives there. They are ging there by air. As usual, Mike’s mther shuld prepare (准备) sme presents.
    Mike’s aunt likes eating dumplings and she als likes listening t music. She is a secretary (秘书) in a big cmpany.
    Mike’s cusin is a student at a senir high schl (高中). He is in the schl ftball team. He is a ftball fan. He wants t be a player like David Beckham. David Beckham is the mst famus ftball player in England.
    Mike’s uncle is an interesting man. He desn’t like smking r drinking wine. His favurite hbby is cking. He is a ck in a big htel.
    This Sunday, Mike’s mther will g t the supermarket and buy smething fr them. They think they will have a gd trip. Gd luck!
    66. Mike’s aunt will get ________ as a present.
    A. a lt f CDsB. basketball shes
    C. a little bird D. a bk abut dumplings
    67. Hw are Mike and his mther ging t Mike’s aunt’s this summer hliday?
    A. By air. B. By ship. C. By train. D. By subway.
    68. Where des Mike’s aunt live?
    A. Beijing.B. Hng Kng. C. Lndn. D. New Yrk.
    69. Why des Mike’s mther g t the supermarket?
    A. Because she wants t buy smething fr herself.
    B. Because she wuld like t buy dumplings fr Mike.
    C. Because she is the secretary in the supermarket.
    D. Because she wants t buy presents fr Mike’s aunt’s family.
    70. When will Mike and his mther g t his aunt’s?
    A. In spring. B. In summer. C. In autumn. D. In winter.
    沐川县2023-2024学年上期七年级质量监测
    英 语
    第一卷 答题栏
    第二卷(满分50分)
    注意:用0.5mm黑色墨迹签字笔答在试卷上。
    第四部分 写(满分50分)
    第一节 词汇(共10小题,每题1 分,满分10 分)
    根据所给汉语或首字母提示,写出符合句意的单词形式,一空一词。
    71. My father ften g_______ n the Internet t check the times f trains and buy tickets.
    72. The panda is the favurite f peple all ver the w_______.
    73. We have lunch in the schl d________ hall at half past twelve.
    74. Chclate is d_________, but t much chclate isn’t gd fr yu.
    75. Lingling is b________(购买) a few presents and pstcards fr her friends.
    76 Hw much are the c________(衣服)?
    77. I want t buy a s_________(毛衣) fr my mther.
    78. We will becme h_________(健康) if we ften eat a lt f fruit.
    79. Mther bught a lt f things fr Tm’s b__________(生日).
    80. We shuld eat green v__________(蔬菜).
    第二节 语法填空(共10小题,每题1.5分,满分15分)
    在短文空白处填入一个适当的词,或所给词的适当形式。一空一词。
    Jessica is (81)_______ 25-year-ld wman. She (82)________(wrk) in a cmpany. She is a busy wman. Like many yung peple, the cmputer (83)______(be) the mst(最) imprtant part in Jessica’s daily life. She (84)__________(spend) a lt f time in frnt f a cmputer every day. In the mrning, she reads news (85)______ the cmputer fr ne hur and then she wrks fr three (86)________(hur). In the afternn, she wrks n the cmputer fr abut fur hurs. When she (87)________(g) hme in the evening, she still sits in frnt f (88)________(she) cmputer. She plays games r talks (89)________her friends n the Internet. Smetimes she buys (90)________(thing), such as bks, clthes n the Internet. “I cannt leave the cmputer in my life,” she says.
    第三节 书面表达(满分25分)
    假如你是李华,请根据下面的提示,写一篇题目为“My Habits(我的习惯)”的英语短文介绍自己。可适当发挥,不少于60词。文中不得出现真实人名、地名、校名等。
    提示:
    1. 13岁,家里有5口人,爷爷奶奶、父母和我。
    2. 喜欢写作,读书,不喜欢看电影;
    3. 周末常与朋友一起打篮球、踢足球,运动使我保持健康。
    4. 我喜欢吃蔬菜、鸡蛋、牛奶,也喜欢牛肉和鸡肉,都是健康食品。
    ____________________________________________________________________________
    ____________________________________________________________________________
    ____________________________________________________________________________
    ____________________________________________________________________________
    ____________________________________________________________________________
    ____________________________________________________________________________
    ____________________________________________________________________________
    ____________________________________________________________________________
    沐川县2023-2024学年上期七年级质量监测
    英语听力原文
    第一节,听下面5段短对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
    1. W: D yu g t schl by bus, Daming?
    M: N. My hme is near the schl, s I walk there.
    2. W: Is it time fr cmputer class nw, Mark?
    M: N, we have it at half past nine.
    3. W: Lk at the black and range animal.
    M: Oh, it’s strng tiger.
    4. W: D yu d yur hmewrk in yur bk, Frank?
    M: Yes. But smetimes I write it n the cmputer.
    5. W: What d yu usually d at a Chinese birthday party?
    M: We sing happy birthday and eat cakes.
    第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
    听下面5段较长对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。每段对话或独白读两遍。
    听第六段对话,回答第6--7小题
    W: What can I d fr yu?
    M: I want five ice creams, sme rice and sme ndles.
    W: Let me see. Here yu are.
    M: Thank yu. Here is the mney.
    W: Little by, dn’t eat t much ice creams. It’s bad fr yur teeth.
    M: Oh, I see. But it’s delicius.
    W: Yu can eat ne every day.
    M: That’s a gd idea. Thanks, bye.
    听第七段对话,回答第8--9小题
    W: What d yu get at Spring Festival, Jack?
    M: I get hngba frm my parents.
    W: Well, hw much d yu get?
    M: Nearly 200 yuan.
    W: What d yu d with the mney?
    M: Buy sme ice creams and chclate.
    W: They’re nt healthy. D yu watch TV in the evening? Yes, My family all watch Spring Festival Gala and we g t bed after 12:00 pm.
    听第八段对话,回答第10--12小题
    W: What’s yur favurite subject, David?
    M: English, I think.
    W: Of curse, yu are gd at it because yu are English.
    M: What is yur favurite, Han Mei?
    W: Maths. I think it’s a lt f fun.
    M: Really? But I think it’s s difficult.
    W: D yu want my help? I’m free n Saturdays.
    M: Sure. It’s really nice f yu.
    听九段对话,回答第13--15小题
    M: Where d yu want t g nw, Susan?
    W: Let’s see the mnkeys.
    M: The mnkeys? Why d yu like mnkeys?
    W: I think they are interesting and clever.
    M: Yes, but they are ugly, t. I dn’t like them.
    W: Oh, Jeff. Where d yu want t g?
    M: Let’s see the lins.
    W: Lins? They are dangerus. I dn’t like them.
    M: Well, hw abut giraffes?
    W: Oh, yeah. I lve giraffes. They are really beautiful. Where are they?
    M: They are ver there n the left, just next t the elephants.
    听下面一段独白,回答第16--20小题
    Bill is a middle schl by. He has lessns frm Mnday t Friday. He ges t schl at half past seven. His schl starts at eight ’clck. He has maths, science, PE, art and English. Science is difficult, but interesting. He likes it. And he plays ftball at three ’clck in the afternn. After class he desn’t d his hmewrk. He always plays with his friends. He ges hme at five ’clck. He likes singing and he is in a music club.
    沐川县2023-2024学年上期七年级质量监测
    英语参考答案
    第一部分(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
    1-10 BCCAC CBCAA 11-20 BBCAC BCCAC
    第二部分(共30小题,每小题1分,满分30分)
    21-30 CAACB BCCAA 31-35 CBCBB
    36-42 BCACB AC 43-50 ABCBC DBD
    第三部分(共20小题,每小题2分,满分40分)
    51-60 CBCAC CAABC 61-70 BCCAD AABDB
    第四部分
    第一节(共10小题,每题1 分,满分10 分)
    71-75 ges/gets; wrld; dining; delicius; buying
    76-80 clthes; sweater; healthy; birthday; vegetables
    第二节(共10小题,每题1.5分,满分15分)
    81-85 a; wrks; is; spends; n 86-90 hurs; ges; her; with/t; things
    第三节(满分25分)
    One pssible versin
    My Habits
    ①I am Li Hua. I am thirteen. There are five peple in my family, my grandparents, my parents and I. ②I like I like writing and reading bks. But I dn't like films. ③I ften play basketball and ftball with friends n weekends. Ding sprts keeps me healthy. ④I like eating vegetables, eggs and milk. I like beef and chicken, t. They are healthy fd. ⑤I think I have gd habits.
    标注的5点内容即5个要点,每个要点5分,要求完整清楚正确通顺的表达。第5点言之有理句子无误即得分。要点中内容不全,酌情扣分。
    1.必须用完整的句子表达出要点,如只写出所给词语而无主谓结构,不可视为要点写出;如写出的是关键词语/组,则可给1分。
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    9: 00 am--4: 00 pm
    Children
    Over 12: ¥10. 00
    Under 12: Free
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