安徽省淮南市潘集区2022-2023学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题

这是一份安徽省淮南市潘集区2022-2023学年七年级下学期期末考试英语试题，共7页。
第一部分：听力部分(满分15分)
I. 短对话理解(共5小题； 每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到5段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. Wh is Tina's English teacher?
2. What time is it nw?
3. Hw was the weather in Sanya last week?
A. Cl. B. Warm. C. Ht.
4. What is Jim's mther ding?
A. Cking. B. Washing clthes. C. Sweeping the flr.
5. Where d the speakers want t g?
A. T the museum. B. T the z. C. T the cinema.
II. 长对话理解(共5小题； 每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三选项中，选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读2遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。
6. Hw was Steve's weekend?
A. Fun. B. Bring. C. Terrible.
7. What did Alice d at the weekend?
A. She read sme interesting bks. B. She did husewrk all day.
C. She did her hmewrk all day.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。
8. What's the weather like tday?
A. Ht. B. Cludy. C. Sunny.
9. What did Jenny d this mrning?
A. She played tennis. B. She played baseball. C. She went swimming.
10. What will Sally and Mike d?
A. G t the z. B. Have a party. C. G t the mvies.
III. 短文理解 (共5小题; 每小题1分, 满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. Hw is Li Lei ging t Mary's birthday party?
A. On ft. B. By bike. C. By bus.
12. Wh des Li Lei ask fr help?
A. Mary. B. A pliceman. C. His father.
13. Hw can Li Lei get t the bus stp?
A. Walk alng the rad and turn right at the first crssing.
B. Walk alng the rad and turn left at the first crssing.
C. Walk alng the rad and turn left at the secnd crssing.
14. Hw lng des it take Li Lei frm here t the bus stp?
A. Five minutes. B. Ten minutes. C. Fifteen minutes.
15. When des Li Lei get t Mary's birthday party?
A. At 7:00 p. m. B. At 8:00 p. m. C. At 9:00 p. m.
第二部分：笔试部分(满分85分)
一、单项填空(每小题1分，满分 10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
16. — What des yur sister lk like?
—— She is tall shrt, she’s f medium height.
A. nt, r B. nt, and C. n, r D. n, and
17. It , s yu must take an umbrella(雨伞) .
A. rain B. is rains C. is raining D. raining
18.— Let's g t the mvies. 一 .
A. Thank yu B. Sunds great C. That's right D. Bye- bye
19.—— Wuld yu like sme eggs, Judy? — I'm full (饱的).
A. I'm nt sure. B. Yes, I will. C. All right. D. N, thanks.
20.— Can yu make a snwman? — .
A. Nt bad B. N prblem C. Great D. Terrible
21.— What did yu d yesterday? —I .
A. g fishing B. picks apples C. went t the park D. swimming
22.— there a pay phne near here? — Yes, there ,
A. Is, is B. Are, is C. Is, are D. Are, are
23. My father enjys newspapers after wrk.
A. t read B. read C. reading D. reads
24.一 were the peple? — They were friendly.
A. Hw B. What C. Where D. When
25.— Did yu g fishing with yur grandfather yesterday?
— . I went shpping with my mther.
A. Yes,I did B. N, I didn't C. Yes,I was D. N,I wasn't
二、完形填空 (每小题1分，满分 10分)
阅读下面的短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Liu xiakai is a student in Beijing. Tday is 26 . Xiakai gets up early in the mrning. He's very happy 27 it's his favrite day.
Why dcs Xiakai like Wednesday best? That's because he has tw 28 lessns n this day. English is his favrite subject. His 29 Mr. Green is very nice. Mr. Green is 30 America. He's friendly t his students and his lessns are very 31 . In his class, he ften tells the students interesting stries and makes 32 laugh(大笑).
lu Mr. Green's class, the students can als play games, 33 English mvies and learn t sing English sngs. Xinkai 34 gd at English. He always gets As.“ English is cl and useful. I 35 it,” he says. He wants t be an English teacher, t.
26. A. Mnday B. Wednesday C. Friday D. Sunday
27. A. and B. s C. but D. because
28. A. music B. histry C. English D. Chinese
29. A. friend B. teacher C. father D. classmate
30. A. in B. with C. t D. frm
31. A. lng B. difficult C. busy D. interesting
32. A. them B. yu C. her D. him
33. A. buy B. get C. watch D. need
34. A. eats B. is C. sees D. takes
35. A. have B. knw C. lve D. finish
三、情景交际 (每小题1分，满分5分)
根据对话内容，从方框中选择恰当的选项补全对话，其中有两项多余。
A: Hi, Peter. 36
B: It was great. I visited my uncle n a farm. A. What did yu d there?
A: Sunds gd. 37 B. S. hw did yu get there?
B: By bus. It tk abut half an hur. C. Did yu take any phts there?
A: 38 D. Hw was yur last weekend?
B:I helped my uncle feed hrses. E. Hw was the weather there?
A: It must be fun. 39 F. What ther animals did yu see?
B:I saw lts f cws and chickens.
A:I see. 40 G. They tasted delicius.
B: Yes,I did. I' ll bring them t schl tmrrw.
A: Great.
四、阅读理解(每小题2分，满分40分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳选项。
A
Children's Training (训练) Center41. If yu want t learn t draw, yu must .
A. G t Miss Liu's hme. B. Have time n Friday.
C. Call 13983718219. D. G t Rm 307.
42. What can yu learn if yu are free n Thursday afternn?
A. English. B. Drawing C. Swimming, D. Cmputer.
43. Hw many hurs des Children's Training Center pen at least(至少) every day?
A.2. B.3. C.4. D.5.
44. Wh is the text(文本) fr?
A. Teachers. B. Children. C. Actrs. D. Farmers.
B
Hell, friends. My name is Mike. I live in Sydney. My hme is n a busy street. There is a big bkstre next t my hme. In the bkstre, there are fur Nrs(层). On the first flr, there are sme bks abut science. On the secnd flr, there are many bks fr students. On the third flr, there are many dictinaries. On the furth flr, there are sme bks fr teachers. I ften g t the bkstre with my parents, but we g t different flrs. My father likes science, and he ften reads science bks n the first flr. My mther is a teacher, and she ften ges t the furth flr t buy bks. I'm a student and I ften read bks n the secnd flr.
45. The big bkstre is .
A. in frnt f Mike's hme B. behind Mike's hme
C. next t Mike's hme D. acrss frm Mike's hme
46. are n the third flr.
A. Sme bks abut science B. Sme bks fr students
C. Sme bks fr parents D. Many dictinaries
47. Mike ften reads bks n the flr.
A. first B. secnd C. third D. furth
48. What can we knw frm the passage(文章)?
A. Mike's hme is n a quiet street in Sydney.
B. Mike's father ften ges t the furth flr.
C. Mike ften ges t the bkstre with his parents.
D. Mike's father is a teacher.
C
49. Hw's the weather in the USA?
A. Raining. B. Cludy. C. Sunny. D. Snwing.
50. Wh is Simn? He is .
A. Millie's brther. B. Rse’s brther. C. Mike's brther. D. Alan's brther.
51. Where is Alan nw?
A. In the USA. B. In the UK. C. In Australia D. In China.
52. What is Mike ding? He is .
A. Playing games B. reading bks C. making a snwman D. listening t music
D
Mr. Black is shrt- sighted(近视的) but he desn't wear glasses, because he thinks it is nt cl t wear glasses.
It is Sunday and it is fine tday. Mr. Black likes sunny days and he wants t take a walk. He puts n (戴上) his black hat and white cat, takes his yellw bag and then ges ut f his huse. He walks n the street and feels very happy.
Suddenly, a strng wind blws away his hat.“ Oh, my hat!” Mr. Black begins t run after it. He runs and the hat“ runs”, t. Mr. Black feels surprised. An ld man shuts at him frm a windw.
“ Hey! What are yu ding?”
“ Running after my hat!”
“ Yur hat? Yu are running after my black cat.”
53. Mr. Black desn't wear glasses because he .
A. has n glasses B. desn't like t wear them
C. lst his glasses D. desn't need t wear them
54. Frm the passage, we can knw it is tday.
A. rainy B. cludy C. snwy D. sunny
55. What clr is Mr. Black's hat?
A. Black. B. White. C. Yellw. D. I dn't knw.
56、The ld man shuts at Mr. Black because .
A. Mr. Black runs nisily B. Mr. Black is running after his cat
C. Mr. Black is very happy D. Mr. Black is running after his hat
E
Readers is a TV shw and it is getting ppular in China. Peple can read everything in the shw, Many peple like the shw and enjy reading at hme. Nw the shw gives peple a special place t read acrss China. Reading pavilins (亭子) are nw in cities like Shanghai, Hangzhu and Xi’ an. The pavilin is quite small. Only ne persn can cme int it each time. Everyne can read fr three minutes in it. The shw will later ask sme f the readers t read n TV.
Quite a lt f peple are mre and mre interested in reading. Peple f all ages cme and read everything they like in the pavilin. Reading shuld be like singing and talking. We can shw ur feelings by reading alud.
57. What is Readers?(不超过5个词)

58. Is the reading pavilin big r small?(不超过5 个词)

59. Hw lng can a persn read in the pavilin?(不超过5个词)

60. Can yu read English in the pavilin?(不超过5 个词)

五、单词拼写(每小题1分，满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
61. Summer is cming. Children like swimming in a p (游泳池).
62. Ted m (挤奶) the cw n the farm last weekend.
63. Yur brther is sleeping. Dn't w (弄醒) him up.
64. The library is acrss frm the park, s yu can find it e (容易地).
65. The weather is very c (冷的) in winter.
六、书面表达 (满分 15分)
假如你是 Betty，你的笔友Mike想了解你上周末的活动，请你用英文给他写封60词左右的邮件。开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Mike,
I was really busy last weekend.


Yurs,
Betty
潘集区2022—2023学年度（下）期末教学质量检测
七年级英语试卷参考答案
听力部分：
1-5.ABBBC；6-10.ACCAA；11-15.CBBCA。
笔试部分：
16-20.ACBDB；21-25.CACAB。
26-30.BDCBD；31-35.DACBC。
36-40.DBAFC
41-44.DCAB；45-48.CDBC；49-52.AACD；53-56.BDAB；
57.It is a TV shw.
58.It is small.
59.（Fr）3 minutes.
60.Yes, I/ we can.
61.pl, 62.milked, 63.wake, 64.easily, 65.cld.
写作：答案略
批阅请按照中考标准——按档给分！
1. 内容完整，语句流畅，无语法错误，书写规范，给13-15分;
2. 内容较完整，语句较流畅，基本无语法错误，书写较规范，给10-12分;
3. 内容不完整，语句欠流畅，语法错误较多，书写较规范，给7-9分;
4. 只写出个别要点，语法错误较多，书写欠规范，只有个别句子可读，给4-6分；
5. 只写出个别要点或不知所云，甚至抄写试卷上的内容，给0-3分。

English
Time: Mnday, Thursday & Friday 9:00a. m.--11:00a. m.
Rm:201
Teacher: Miss Liu
Tel:0316-2314578,13883351652
Cmputer
Time: Tuesday, Wednesday & Friday
9:00a. m.--11:00a. m,
3:00p. m.--5:00p. m.
Rm:503
Teacher: Mr Hu
Tel:0316-2314573,13708356472
Drawing
Time: Mnday, Thursday & Sunday 9:00a. m.--11:00a. m.
Rm:307
Teacher: Miss Yang
Tel:0316-2314588,13708327158
Swimming
Time: Thursday, Saturday & Sunday
9:00a. m.--11:00a. m.
3:00p. m.--5:00p. m.
Place: Sunshine Swimming Pl
Teacher: Mr Zhang& Miss Wang
Tel:0316-2315709,13983718219
I'm Millie frm the USA. It's raining utside. I'm at hme with my brther Simn. I'm reading bks and he is playing with his cat. The cat is black and white. It's very lvely.
Hi! I'm Rse. It's clud y tday in the UK. Mike and I are in the park. Mike is listening t music under a big tree and I'm playing games with sme ther children.
I'm Alan. It's a sunny day in Australia. Fr my family, it's als a busy day. Lk! My mm is washing clthes. My sister and I are helping my father clean his car.