2022-2023学年四川省攀枝花市八年级（上）期末英语试卷

这是一份2022-2023学年四川省攀枝花市八年级（上）期末英语试卷，共11页。试卷主要包含了 A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
八年级 英语试题卷
本试题卷分为四个部分，共10页。考生作答时，须将答案答在答题卡上，在本试题卷、草稿纸上答题均无效。满分150分，监测时间120分钟。
注意事项：
1. 答题前，考生务必将自己的学校、姓名、班级、监测号填写在答题卡规定的位置上，并用2B铅笔将答题卡监测号对应数字标号涂黑。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后用2B铅笔将答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其它答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上题目所指示的答题区域内，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 监测结束后，将答题卡交回，考生须将本试题卷带走并妥善保管。
第一部分 听力测试（共四大题，20小题，满分30分）
一、听句子，选出句子的最佳答语。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
下面你将听到五个句子，每个句子读两遍。请你听完句子的第二遍朗读后从各小题所给出的A、B、C三个选项中选出该句的最佳答语。
1. A. There are many peple.B. They’re interesting.C. I want t watch TV.
2. A. Yes, she des.B. I think s.C. She’s very yung.
3. A. I called the plice.B. I dn’t care.C. What happened?
4. A. Yes, I can.B. Yu are welcme.C. N, I’m afraid nt.
5. A. It is right.B. The first ne.C. It is fine.
二、短对话理解。（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
6. Wh desn’t like Beijing Opera?
A. Jack.B. Kate.C. Lucy.
7. What’s the weather like nw?
A. Snwy.B. Sunny.C. Rainy.
8. Where are the tw speakers mst prbably?
A. At a bus stp.B. In a fd shp.C. In a bkstre.
9. What des the man mean?
A. Jhn Smith is ut.
B. Nbdy knws Jhn Smith.
C. The wman has gt a wrng number.
10. Why is the wman mving t a new huse?
A. Because she wants t listen t sngs.
B. Because her neighbr is nisy.
C. Because the new huse is mre beautiful.
三、长对话理解。（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第11、12小题。
11. Where did Miss Smith find the lst pen?
A. In the Lst and Fund Office.B. In the library.C. In the schl hallway.
12. What’s the relatinship between the tw speakers?
A. Mther and sn.B. Teacher and student.C. Father and daughter.
听下面一段对话，回答第13-15小题。
13. What sprt can’t peple d nw at the sprts centre?
A. Table tennis.B. Vlleyball.C. Swimming.
14. Hw much shuld yu pay fr a year if yu are 17?
A. $ 40.B. $ 50.C. $ 60.
15. Why will they g t the sprts centre next Friday?
A. They wn’t have any classes.
B. They can stay there lnger.
C. The tickets will be cheaper.
四、听短文，选答案。（共5小题，每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
本题你将听到一篇短文,读两遍。请从每个小题所给的三个选项中，选出最适当的一项。
16. Where did the ld lady put the pieces f glass?
A. On the street.B. Int her bag.C. Int her bx.
17. Wh were talking n the street?
A. An ld lady and a pliceman.
B. A pliceman and sme kids.
C. An ld lady and sme kids.
18. Why did the ld lady pick up (捡起) the pieces f glass?
A. Because she wanted t sell the glass.
B. Because she wanted t clean the street.
C. Because she wanted t keep the kids safe.
19. What did the pliceman d then?
A. He thanked the ld lady.B. He jined the ld lady.C. He played with the kids.
20. What can yu knw frm the stry?
A. The ld lady was kind.B. The kids were happy.C. The pliceman was brave.
第二部分 语言知识运用（共三大题，35小题，满分45分）
五、单项选择。（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
从各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项，并将答题卡上相应的选项涂黑。
21. It’s dangerus fr ________ 8-year-ld girl t run in the hallway, because safety cmes ________ first.
A. an, theB. a, theC. an, /D. a, /
22. Bella always feels tired and I think she ________ g t bed early.
A. shuldB. culdC. mayD. shall
23. Daniel is my friend. I like t share my jy ________ him when I am happy.
A. tB. withC. nD. fr
24. Frty-five percent students ________ fur t six times a week in ur class.
A. exerciseB. exercisesC. exercisedD. exercising
25. ________ the schl team, Jack practices very hard every day.
A. JinedB. JinC. JinsD. T jin
26. This mrning, the bus was ________ crwded fr me ________ get n, s I was late fr schl.
A. s, thatB. t, tC. such, thatD. enugh, t
27. My grandma always tells me ________ is mre imprtant than health.
A. anythingB. smethingC. everythingD. nthing
28. —________ is the secnd step f making Russian Sup?
—Oh, I frgt. But I think my mm can help us.
A. Hw manyB. Hw muchC. HwD. What
29. There are ________ yung peple living in my hmetwn than befre, because there are ________ chances fr me t find jbs in cities.
A. less, mreB. fewer, mreC. mre, lessD. mre, fewer
30. —Wh teaches ________ music?
—Nbdy. I teach ________.
A. yur, mineB. yur, myselfC. yu, myselfD. yu, mine
31. If I can’t wrk ut the prblems, I ________ it with my friends.
A. discussB. discussedC. will discussD. am discussing
32. These days lts f peple are wrkings ________ t get ________ fr their living.
A. hardly enugh, enugh mneyB. hard enugh, enugh mney
C. enugh hard, mney enughD. enugh hardly, mney enugh
33. —Yu’d better ________ t much meat. It will make yu fat and unhealthy.
—Thank yu fr yur advice. I will eat less.
A. nt eatB. catC. nt t eatD. t eat
34. Of all the markets in ur twn, the central market has ________ fd and ________ prices.
A. fresh, lwB. fresher, lwer
C. freshest, lwestD. the freshest, the lwest
35.—Hw can we get t Gesala Village, Wu Bingbing?
—________. Let’s call Zhang Wei fr help.
A. N ideaB. Bad luckC. Pretty gdD. Hurry up
六、口语交际。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
用方框内所给句子完成对话，有两项多余。从所给的选项中选出最佳选项，并将答题卡上相应的选项涂黑。
A: 36. ________________
B: It was great. I went t Panzhihua with my family last weekend.
A: Cl! 37. ________________
B: We went t Huawurenjian Park, Juque Inkstne Museum and s n.
A: 38. ________________
B: The sky is blue, the peple are friendly. I really like the sunshine there.
A: As far as I knw, it is rich in different kinds f fruits. 39. ________________
B: Of curse, 40. ________________ Culd yu please cme ver t my huse t get them?
A: It’s very nice f yu. Hw abut tnight?
B: N prblem. See yu then.
七、完形填空。（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
先通读下面两段短文，读懂大意，然后从后面各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选择可以填入相应空白处的最佳选项，并将答题卡上相应的选项涂黑。
A
One day an ld man went int a cafeteria (自助餐厅) t eat in America fr the first time. He sat dwn at an empty table and waited fr 41 t take his rder. Of curse nbdy did. Finally, a wman with a plate full f fd sat dwn ppsite him and tld him hw a cafeteria wrked.
“Start ut at that end,” she said, “Just g alng the line and picked ut what yu want. At the ther end they’ll tell yu hw much yu have t pay.”
“I sn learned that’s hw everything wrks in the US,” the ld man later tld a friend, “ 42 is a cafeteria here. Yu can get anything yu want if yu wuld like t pay the price. Yu can even get success, but yu’ll never get it if yu wait fr smene t 43 it t yu. Yu have t get up and get it yurself.”
44 , life everywhere is like a cafeteria. Dn’t wait fr things t happen t yu. Success lies in yur wn 45 .
41. A. his friendB. his wifeC. a strangerD. a waiter
42. A. LifeB. SchlC. OfficeD. Cmpany
43. A. carryB. lendC. mveD. bring
44. A. In peaceB. In the endC. In factD. In a hurry
45. A. wrkB. handsC. pininD. bks
B
What’s the mst fantastic painting yu have ever seen? These days, a 46 3D street painting appeared in Nanjing. Its 47 is “Rhythms f Yuth”.
The great wrk f art, painted n a rad f a university in Nanjing, 48 an area f mre than 2,600 m2, setting tw Guinness (吉尼斯) Wrld Recrds as the wrld’s largest and 49 3D street painting.
Yang Yngchun, a famus Chinese 50 , with his team created this painting successfully. “It 51 my team mre than tw weeks t finish the painting n the grund. Every day, we hardly had a gd rest until it was t dark t 52 anything. We have spent all f ur time, energy and attentin n this painting,” said Yang. The painting is 53 fr the secnd Summer Yuth Olympic Games. Nanjing is the hst city f it. The painting includes the Games’ masct (吉祥物), Lele, main buildings in Nanjing and the Lng River that runs 54 the city.
The painting lks really 55 , yu had better walk n it by yurself. I think yu must be shcked by the real great painting.
46. A. 365-meter-lngB. 365-meters-lngC. 365 meter lngD. 365 meters lng
47. A. addressB. paintingC. nameD. age
48. A. shwsB. cversC. placesD. stays
49. A. deepestB. biggestC. tallestD. lngest
50. A. teacherB. artistC. singerD. dctr
51. A. tkB. spentC. cstD. paid
52. A. hearB. seeC. watchD. ntice
53. A. a letterB. an emailC. a giftD. sme mney
54. A. acrssB. pastC. thrughD. ver
55. A. cleanB. tidyC. dirtyD. cl
第三部分 阅读理解（共20小题，满分40分）
八、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
阅读下面的短文，从每题所給的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项，并将答题卡上相应的选项涂黑。
A
If yu have a pet, d yu knw hw t take care f it? Actually, dn. t wrry. It’s nt as difficult as yu think. Yu can d it if yu fllw these ideas.
Fd
Yu need t be sure that yu knw when and what t give yur new pet.
•Mst animals need t be fed nce r twice a day. Smetimes baby animals need t be fed mre.
•Dn’t give fd like chclate t yur pet, because it can make mst animals sick.
Water
•Make sure that yur pet has enugh clean, fresh water. Make sure that yu need t change the water twice a day.
• If yur pet is a fish r a turtle, be sure t clean the tank at least nce a week.
Exercise
•Pets, like dgs, need plenty f exercise. It helps them t keep healthy and happy. Dn’t frget t take them fr a walk. Play with yur dg every day. The exercise is gd fr yu, t!
56. Hw ften shuld yu clean the tank if yu keep a fish?
A. Once a year.B. Once a mnth.
B. At least nce a week.D. Less than nce a week.
57. When yu give fd t yur pet, yu shuld knw ________.
A. when t give itB. what t give it
B. hw ften yu shuld feed itD. all the abve
58. Hw many kinds f pets are mentined in the passage?
A. Tw.B. Three.C. Fur.D. Five.
59. Which f the fllwing is the tight thing yu can d?
A. Yu need t take dgs fr a walk.B. Yu can give chclate t yur pet.
C. Yu need t feed yur pet nce a week.D. Yu need t change the water nce a week.
60. What’s the best title fr the passage?
A. What’s the Right Fd fr PetsB. Hw t Make Friends With Pets
C. It’s Easy t Lk After PetsD. Hw t Take Care f Pets
B
Layi Aga, 76. brke int a smile when she thught f her first trip by train.
The year was 1970, Layi, frm Mianshan Twnship in Liangshan, Sichuan, walked mre than 7 kilmeters alng muntain rads with her family, hping t see n train pull int the railway statin. At that time, the Chengdu-Kunming Railway just started running and it was the main railway cnnecting Sichuan and Yunnan. Train statins were built in muntain villages and twnships, and Mianshan was ne f the stps.
Layi ften takes the train between Mianshan and Xichang t make a living. It is abut 72 kilmeters lng. Making a rund trip by bus is quicker but it csts 80 yuan. The rund trip by slw train takes abut three hurs, but it nly csts 10 yuan. And fr Layi and many peple like her, the train is nt a mde f transprtatin (交通方式), but als a “mbile market”. They ften bring their farm prducts 10 me train t sell.
In January this year, a Fuxing bullet train left Liangshan fr Kunming. This is the first bullet train frm Liangshan. It’s much faster, but the slw trains are still lifelines fr many peple. They can always ffer cheap, safe and cmfrtable jurneys.
61. Layi felt ________ when she thught f her first train jurney.
A. pleasedB. bredC. wrriedD. afraid
62. What happened in 1970?
A. Layi mved t Kunming,
B. Layi and her family walked t Chengdu.
C. The Chengdu-Kunming Railway was pened t traffic.
D. Villagers in Sichuan built several railways alng muntain rads.
63. Layi chses t travel frm Mianshan t Xichang by train because ________.
A. it is quicker than by busB. it is fun t travel by train
C. it is the nly mde f transprtatinD. it is much cheaper than taking the bus
64. What can we learn frm the last paragraph?
A. Mre and mre peple travel by bullet train.
B. Slw trains are still imprtant fr peple like Layi.
C. Liangshan gt its first bullet train nly a few years ag.
D. Bullet trains are safer and mre cmfrtable than slw trains.
65. Which f the fllwing is TRUE?
A. The train statin is near Layi’s hme.
B. Layi ften sells farm things n the train.
C. The railway frm Mianshan t Xichang is 80 kilmeters lng.
D. Making a rund trip by bus frm Mianshan t Xichang takes abut 3 hurs.
C
The Spring Festival is celebrated nt nly in China but als in ther parts f the wrld. The traditinal (传统的) hliday is the mst imprtant t Chinese bth in China and ther cuntries.
The United Kingdm
Celebratins fr the Spring Festival in the UK started in 1980, with the first evening party held in 2002. Every New Year, peple get tgether and have a lt f activities. They sing sngs, dance t music, shw phts t friends r enjy films in a cinema.
The United States
The Spring Festival has becme a key time fr Chinese living r wrking in the US. They jin in a large evening party t welcme the traditinal New Year. It is a gd time fr peple t make new friends and feel that they are nt alne because they share the same culture and values.
Australia
The Chinese New Year will be welcmed with three weeks f celebratins acrss Australia. Many peple cme t Sydney’s Chinatwn r Little Burke in Melburne. They enjy firewrks, lin dances, dragn bat races and many ther traditinal activities. The celebratins are als a bridge twards better understanding between Chinese and nn-Chinese,
Singapre
The family dinner n New Year’s Eve is an imprtant traditin fr Chinese whether they were brn in Singapre r mved there frm China. They place traditinal fd n a table as an act f remembering their past. Then the whle family enjy their dinner tgether. They usually hld it at hme because having it in a restaurant takes away the meaning f the traditin.
66. The peple in ________ began t celebrate the Spring Festival in 1980.
A. the UKB. the USC. AustraliaD. Singapre
67. Why d Chinese in America jin in a large evening party at the Spring Festival?
A. Because they want t say hell t the new year.
B. Because they want t tell thers they are alne.
C. Because they want t tell nn-Chinese Chinese stries.
D. Because they want t have a birthday party fr smene.
68. In Singapre, Chinese families dn’t hld the new year dinner in a restaurant but at hme because ________.
A. they are very shyB. the restaurant is far away
C they want t keep Chinese traditinD. the fd in restaurants is t expensive
69. Which f the fllwing is TRUE accrding t the passage?
A. Peple nly celebrate the Spring Festival in China.
B. The peple in Australia like ging t the cinema during the Spring Festival.
C. The Chinese in America can’t share the same culture during the Spring Festival.
D. The Chinese in Singapre put traditinal fd n a table at the Spring Festival t remember their past.
70. In which part f the newspaper may yu find the passage?
A. Traditinal Fd.B. Life in China.
C. Traditinal Culture.D. Peple’s Hbby.
D
Every Wednesday evening, a grup f runners in Chngqing get tgether and have their 5-t-8-kilmeter run in the city. This is nt a nrmal run. The runners take trash (垃圾) bags with them and pick up trash when they run.
“Make running mre than just running,” Sgr, ne f the runners, says. She wears a blue T-shirt with “WE RUN FOR TRASH” n the back. Besides the weekly runs, the grup als has family runs nce a mnth. Children and even pets can take part in the activity.
Sgr says there are mre than 200 trash runners frm all walks f life in the city, such as ffice wrkers, yga teachers and restaurant wners. Over 90 percent f the grup members are Chinese. The ldest are in their 40s, and the yungest is just 5.
“I feel great t make the Earth cleaner,” says an 8-year-ld by. He jined the grup last mnth with his parents. The by brke his left arm, but he keeps running and picks up trash with his right hand.
Trash Running came t Shanghai in 2018. There are grups in 16 cities like Shanghai, Beijing, Chngqing, Changchun and Wuhan. Mre than 9,300 runners run and make the cities clean.
71. Which f the fllwing is NOT TRUE accrding t the passage?
A. Trash running came t Shanghai, China in 2018.
B. There are 9,300 runners frm 16 cities f ur cuntry.
C. A 60-year-ld man is a member f the grup.
D. The runners pike up the trash while running.
72. The underlined wrds “all walks f life” mean “________” in Chinese.
A.多才多艺B.多姿多彩C.各种各样D.各行各业
73. What can we learn abut the little by?
A. He jined the grup last mnth.B. He runs with his grandparents.
C. He feels bad after the run.D. He brke his right hand.
74. What des the writer want t tell us?
A. T shw us a beautiful city.B. T tell us where t run.
C. T tell abut trash running.D. T ask us t keep healthy.
75. The runners in this passage run mainly fr ________.
A. keeping healthyB. making the cities clean
C. making mre friendsD. having fun with pets
第四部分 书面表达（共三大题，满分35分）
九、综合填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
根据所提供的单词或者首字母，用单词的适当形式完成短文。请将答案写在答题卡上，直接写在试卷上不给分。
“Baby, when yu miss yur mther, just lk up at the starry sky, the stars are twinkling all ver the sky, that is I say t yu, I lve yu!”
Liu Yang 76. w________ a letter t her daughter, 8, and sn, 6, just days befre flying int space fr the 77. ________ (tw) time n June 5,2022 n the Shenzhu XIV missin (任务).
Liu Yang was brn in 1978 in Henan. She didn’t expect 78. ________ (be) an astrnaut as a child. She nce dreamed f being a lawyer r an ffice lady. 79. H________, she jined the Air Frce (空军) in 1997 and then became an excellent pilt. Liu Yang became an astrnaut in 2010 after 80. ________ (have) 1,680 hurs f safe flights in the Air Frce.
Liu Yang became 81. ________ (China) first wman astrnaut in 2012, when she spent 13 days 82. ________ (live) in space in the Shenzhu Ⅸ missin. Finally, they 83. ________ (success) in landing n the earth. 84. D________ the Shenzhu XIV missin, she will stay at the Tiangng space statin fr six mnths, wrking with tw 85. ________ (man) astrnauts Chen Dng and Cat Xuzhe t finish the cnstructin (建设) f the space statin f China.
十、任务型读写（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）
选择方框内适当的句子完成短文。注意有一项多余。请将所选句子前的字母填涂在答题卡上，直接写在试卷上不给分。
It’s getting dangerusly clse t “game ver” fr sme players in China. If yu’re under 18 and a fan f nline games, yu can’t play them as much as yu want nw. 86. ________.
Frm a reprt, China is the wrld’s largest nline gaming market. Abut 63% f Chinese minrs (未成年人) play nline games ften. 87. ________ And sme parents find their kids being lazy and even vilent (暴力的) after playing nline games.
T stp the minrs frm playing games t much, China sets a new rule fr yung gamers. Frm September 1, 2021, minrs can nly play nline games between 8 p.m. and 9 p.m. n Fridays and weekends. 88. ________ When enrlling (注册), gamers need t use their real names and numbers.
89. ________ Parents dn’t need t wrry that their children are playing nline games at schl again. And less gaming is gd fr the players’ health, especially fr their eyes. 90. ________ G utside, and jump and run!
十一、写作（满分15分）
由于新冠疫情限制了人们的出行，越来越多的人开始选择居家运动来保持健康。假如你是李华，你的笔友Anna发邮件向你询问关于居家运动的建议。请你参考以下内容给她回一封邮件。
要求：
1. 包含所给提示信息，可适当发挥；
2. 条理清楚，意思连贯，语句通顺，语法正确；
3. 80词左右（开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）。
4. 参考词汇：做瑜伽d yga，健身游戏fitness games
Dear Anna,
I’m s happy t receive yur e-mail. Yu say yu want t knw smething abut exercising at hme. Let me give yu sme advice.
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________
_____________________________________________________________________________________________Yurs,
Li Hua
义务教育教学质量均衡发展状况监测 2023.1
八年级 英语试题答案
第I卷（选择题，共85分，答案写在答题卡上）
一、听力
1-5 ACCAB 6-10 BBCAC 11-15 CAABB 16-20 ACBCC
二、英语基础知识运用
单项选择
21-25 AABAD 26-30 BBDBC 31-35 CBCDA
口语交际
36-40 BEDAF
完形填空
41-45 DDDCB 46-50 ACBDB 51-55ABCCD
阅读理解
56-60 CDBAD 61-65 ACDBB 66-70 AACDC 71-75 CDACB
B卷
短文综合填空
76-85.wrte secnd t be Hwever having
Chinese living succeeded During men
任务型阅读
86-90. CDEFB
写作 略
A. Did yu taste them?
B. Hw was yur weekend?
C. That’s ne f my favrite cities.
D. What d yu think f the city?
E. Where did yu g in Panzhihua?
F. I als bught sme fr yu.
G. What did yu see there?
A. It really makes sme students unhappy.
B. Put dwn yur phne nw.
C. Yu can nly play nline games fr an hur n Fridays, Saturdays, Sundays and public hlidays.
D. Many f these players can’t d well in their lessns.
E. They can als play during the same time n public hlidays.
F. The new rule is a gd thing.
建议1
瑜伽
*安静、容易学 *不需要很大的地方 *……
建议2
健身游戏
*有趣、容易坚持 *可以和家人一起做 *……
注意事项
*穿舒适的运动衣和鞋 *喝充足的水
居家运动的益处
*至少两点