2023-2024学年湖南省张家界市永定区七年级（上）期末英语试卷

这是一份2023-2024学年湖南省张家界市永定区七年级（上）期末英语试卷，共8页。
请同学们注意：
1．本试卷分四个部分，包括听力技能、阅读理解、知识运用、书面表达四个大题,闭卷。
2．听力采取在考室放录音的方式,听力材料以中速朗读两遍。
3．答案必须按要求写在试卷中相对应题号的空白处。要求书写工整、清晰、规范。卷面要整洁。
4．本试卷满分100分，考试时间100分钟。
Ⅰ．听力技能（两部分，共20小题，每小题1分，满分20分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。（共5小题，计5分）
( )1．Where's Tm’s baseball?
A．Under the bed. B．On the bed. C．On the table.
( )2．When is the girl’s birthday?
A．On July 2nd. B．On August 4th. C．On September 5th.
( )3．What’s the by’s favrite subject?
A．English. B．Histry. C．Math.
( )4．What des the by want fr dinner?
A．Apples B．Bananas C．Strawberries
( )5．Where are they prbably(可能)?
A．In the she stre.B．In the bk stre. C．In the clthes stre.
第二节 听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有2-4个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听每段对话或独白前你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。（共15小题，计15分）
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。
( )6．What is the girl’s name?
A．Grace B．Anna C．Alice
( )7．Wh des the girl have a gd day with?
A．Her friend B．Her brther C．Her cusin
听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。
( )8．Where is Amy frm?
A．America B．EnglandC．China
( )9．What des the man like？
A．MilkB．TeaC．Naicha
听第8段材料，回答第10至11题。
( )10．Hw much are these shrts?
A．5 dllars B．10 dllars C．15 dllars
( )11．What des the man buy?
A．A pair f shrts and a jacket
B．A pair f trusers and a T-shirt
C．A pair f shrts and a T-shirt
听第9段材料，回答第12至14题。
( )12.What clr is Jenny’s schlbag?
A．Black B．Yellw C．Brwn.
( )13．Where is Jenny?
A．In the classrm B．In the library C．In her hme
( )14．What’s Jenny’s phne number?
A．740-6739 B．704-6973 C．407-9637
听第10段材料，回答第15至17题。
( )15．Wh is Peter?
A．The by’s friend B．The by’s brther C．The by’s cusin
( )16．When are the by’s basketball games?
A．On Wednesday B．On Thursday C．On Friday
( )17. What des the girl think f basketball games?
A．Cl B．Relaxing C．Bring
听下面一段独白，回答第18至20题。
( )18Hw many peple are in Frank’s family?
A．Three B．Fur C．Five
( )19．Wh plays sccer every afternn?
A．Frank B．Frank’s father C．Frank’s mther
( )20．What des Frank ften d?
A．He ften plays sccer.
B．He ften plays vlleyball.
C．He ften watches tennis game.
Ⅱ．阅读（共三节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
( )21．Alan can’t find his ________.
A．dg B．mdel plane C．schlbag
( )22．What’s NOT in the schlbag?
A．A dictinary. B．Sme keys. C．A ntebk.
B
( )23．What can Bill have a break?
A．At 9:30am B．At 10:30am C．At 14:20pm
( )24．What des Bill d after schl n Wednesday?
A．He plays tennis. B．He watches TV. C．He ges t the library.
( )25．Hw many Chinese lessns des Bill have a week?
A．One B．Tw C．Three

C
This is Frank and his brther Alan’s rm. The tw bys are nt tidy. Their things are always everywhere.
Tday the bys dn’t g t schl. Nw it’s 10:30 in the mrning. Frank cmes back hme frm his friend’s. He cmes t the rm and puts （放）a blue schlbag n the chair. Then he sees his nte（便条） n the desk . He put it there this mrning.
Then Alan cmes t the rm, with a blue schlbag in his hand. “Frank, yu’re hme. This is nt my schlbag. I tk yurs by mistake （拿错） this mrning.”
“Yes , it’s mine. Yurs is n the chair nw. Our schlbags lk the same （相同）. Next time we need t lk in the schlbag first ," Frank says.
“Yu’re right,” Alan says. And then he sees the nte. “Yu want t play baseball this afternn ? That’s great. I want t play it, t. Hw abut meeting at 4 at schl?
“OK ,” says Frank.
( )26．The rm is ______.
A．Frank’s parents’ B．Alan’ s friend’s C．Frank and Alan’s
( )27．Where is Alan’s schlbag nw ?
A．It’s n the bed. B．It’s n the chair. C．It’s n the desk .
( )28．The underlined wrd“ right” in the reading means “_____” in Chinese .
A．右边的 B．正确的 C．复杂的
( )29．What d the bys want t d in the afternn ?
A．Tidy up the rm B．G t the library C．Play baseball .
( )30．Which is TRUE ?
A．Alan can find his brther at schl in the afternn .
B．Frank’s rm is tidy , but his brther’s is nt .
C．Alan thinks he lst his schlbag at schl .
D
On Saturday, December 4th, Duglas’ mm takes him and his sister Gretel t a stre in the mrning. The stre is big and sells things at very gd prices. Duglas sees a mdel plane and asks Mm t buy it fr him. Gretel sees a yellw clck and she wants it, t.
“It’s Duglas’12th birthday tmrrw （明天）, s he can get a gift （礼物）,” Mm says t Gretel,“ Yu can get ne n yur 6th birthday next mnth.”
Gretel is nt happy. She really likes the clck. Seeing this, Duglas says t his mm, “ I will nt take the mdel plane . Can yu buy this clck fr Gretel ?”
“Yes. But why, Duglas? It’s yur birthday tmrrw,” asks Mm.
“I’ll have a party tmrrw afternn,” says Duglas. “It’ll be fun and I can get gifts at my party. S it’s kay that Gretel gets the clck.”
Mm is prud （骄傲的） f Duglas.
“Thank yu, my dear brther,” says Gretel.
In the next afternn, all f Duglas’ friends cme t the party and Duglas gets sme nice gifts frm them. They all have great fun.
( )31．When des Duglas g t the stre ?
A．On Saturday mrning B．On Saturday afternn C．On Sunday mrning .
( )32．Gretel’s birthday is in_______.
A．December B．January C．February
( )33．Duglas’ mther will buy a______ fr Gretel .
A．small bag B．yellw clck C．nice watch
( )34．Frm the passage , we learn that Duglas is a _____by.
A．tidy B．healthy C．gd
( )35．What d we knw frm the passage?
A．Gretel is twelve years ld nw .
B．Gretel has a party in the mrning .
C．Duglas’ birthday is n December 5th.
第二节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。每个选项仅使用一次。
Yu are never t ld t learn(活到老，学到老). Peng Shengwu, an 80-year- ld grandma, learns every day. 36
At first, Grandma Peng just wanted t learn English t help her grandsn. Then, she began t lve it. Nw she studies at a schl. 37 They are all ld peple frm 60 t 80 years ld.
Grandma Peng learns many subjects at schl. 38 She listens t her English teacher carefully(认真地) in class. And after class, she des her hmewrk carefully, t.
But it is a little difficult fr her t learn English. 39 She ften puts English cards n the walls f her hme. She likes listening t English when she is cking. Smetimes, she even brings English cards with her when she takes a bus.
“ 40 I like it a lt ,” Grandma Peng says. “ It is als gd fr my brain (脑).”
第三节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，根据短文内容回答问题或英汉互译。
Hell, bys and girls! I’m Lily and my Chinese name is Xiaxia. Nw I’m in the USA. My mther is frm China and my father is frm the USA. 43.我有一个弟弟。We g t schl tgether (一起) every day.
At schl , art is my favrite subject. 44.I have art n Mnday and Wednesday. S the tw days are my favrite schl days. Mr. Stne is my art teacher. He is nice. All my classmates like him. We always d sme fun things in class. Lk at the pht! Mary and I are in the art rm. She is my classmate and friend. She likes art, t. We can draw very well. Mary lves t draw Liti — her dg. It is brwn and white. I dn’t have a dg. I like t draw sme things abut China. 45. Mary thinks they are interesting She says she plans t g t China with me ne day.
41．Where is Xiaxia’s mther frm?
____________________________________________________________
42．What des Mary likes t draw?
____________________________________________________________
43．____________________________________________________________
44．____________________________________________________________
45．____________________________________________________________
Ⅲ．语言运用（共二节，满分25分）
第一节 （共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It’s Saturday tday. And it’s a big day fr Sara—her birthday. But she 46 n ne remembers(记得) it.
“Gd mrning,” says Mm.
“Hi,” says Sara. She lks arund, but can’t 47 anything fr her birthday.
“What d yu want t 48 tday?” asks Mm.
“Just watch TV at hme,” says Sara. She’s nt 49 .Mm desn’t remember her birthday!
“Why dn't yu g with 50 t the Activity Center (活动中心)?”Mm says.“I 51 yur help.”
“OK,” says Sara.
In the afternn, Sara and her mm g t the Activity Center. When they get there, many peple 52 t Sara, “Happy Birthday!” They're Sara's family and sme f her 53 .There is a big cake and many nice bxes n the table. Ballns (气球)f all clrs are 54 .
One f Sara’s friends says t her, “We always remember yur birthday.”
Sara is very happy. “This is really a 55 birthday!” says Sara. “Thank yu all.”
( )46．A．likesB．thinksC．watches
( )47．A．see B．haveC．take
( )48．A．d B．eatC．buy
( )49．A．tidy B．busyC．happy
( )50．A．it B．meC．us
( )51．A．call B．getC．need
( )52．A．say B．tell C．call
( )53．A．students B．friends C．teachers
( )54．A．everywhereB．nwhere C．where
( )55．A．lng B．great C．busy
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读短文，在空白处填入不多于三个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形试。
Dear Zha Xue,
I 56 (be)very happy t get yur e-mail. Frm yur e-mail, I knw yu always eat rice, vegetables and chicken. I think they are 57. (health) fd. Chicken is yur favrite. My brther, David, likes it, 58. . Yu ften eat hamburgers at KFC 59. yur friends. And I ften g there, t.
I live in Lndn, England. I like fish and hamburgers very much. Every mrning, I have sme 60. (bread), milk and 61. egg fr breakfast at hme. 62.
lunch, I ften have sme fish, vegetables and a hamburger at schl with my gd friend, Jane. In the evening, I have dinner with my family. My mther 63. (get) nice fd fr us. I like China very much and I want 64. (g)n a trip with 65. (I) parents in China. Can yu tell me smething abut Chinese cities?
Anna
Ⅳ．书面表达（满分15分）
七年级上学期的学习生活即将结束。在这半年的初中生活中，你一定结识了很多新朋友吧！那么谁是你最好的朋友呢？请根据下面的思维导图的内容，以My best friend为题写一篇不少于60词的英语短文，向大家介绍一下你最好的朋友(短文开头已经给出，不计入总词数）。
1．要求：字迹端正，书写正确，注意单词的大小写和标点符号；
2．词数不少于60；开头已给出，不计入总词数。
My best friend
Hi, I’m Li Hua. I’m in Grade Seven nw. This term, I make sme new friends.










题 号
Ⅰ
Ⅱ
Ⅲ
Ⅳ
总分
得 分
Lst：A white dg
My name is Alan Green. My phne number is 216－0911.Yu can e－mail me at Alan6512@163.cm.
Fund：A purple schlbag
An English bk, a dictinary and sme keys are in it. My name is Jenny Black. My phne number is 612－7878.
Bill’s Schl Week Schedule（课程表）
Mnday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday
9:00—10:20
Chinese
histry
English
math
gegraphy
Break（课间休息）
10:40—12:00
art
gegraphy
music
science
English
Lunch
13:00—15:00
science
math
Chinese
PE
music
After schl
play tennis
play basketball
g t the library
play cmputer games
watch TV
A．Learning makes(让) me happy .
B．But her favrite subject is English .
C．There are abut 30 students in her class .
D．S she des her best t(尽自己最大努力做) learn English well .
E．She likes learning English and she can speak English well .
永定区2023年秋季学期七年级期末教学质量监测试卷
英语听力材料
Ⅰ．听力技能（两部分，共20小题，计20分）
第一节（共5题；每题1分，满分5分）听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
1．W:Tm, Where is yur baseball?
M: It’s under the bed.
2．M: When is yur birthday, Catherine?
W: It’s n August 4th.
3．W: Hi, Peter, What’s yur favrite subject?
M: My favrite subject is Math. It is easy and interesting.
4．W: D yu want sme fruit fr dinner?
M: Yes. I d. Hw abut bananas?
5．W: These shes lk nice. Hw much are they?
M: They are nly 20 dllars fr ne pair.
第二节（共15题；每题1分，满分15分）听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6至7题
W: Gd mrning, Paul.
M: Gd mrning, Anna, Wh is this by?
W: He is my cusin, Tm. We have a gd day tday.
M: Sunds nice!
听第7段材料，回答第8至9题
M: Wh is this girl in yur pht,Alice?
W: It’s Amy. She is an American girl.
M: Are yu American t?
W: N, I am an English. Lk at the pht, I am drinking milk .I like milk very much. But Amy likes Naicha.
M: My favrite drink is Naicha, t.
听第8段材料，回答第10至11题。
M: Hw much are these shrts?
W: They are nly 10 dllars
M: Great! I’ll take them, and I want t take this T-shirt ,t.
W: OK, That’s 15 dllars.
听第9段材料，回答第12至14题。
W: Hi, is Jenny here?
M: N, she is nt in the classrm.
W: This yellw schlbag is Jenny's, but I can't find her.
M: She's in her hme nw. Yu can call her.
W: What's her phne number?
M: Her phne number is 704-6973
听第10段材料，回答第15至17题。
W: D yu have a basketball?
M: N, but my friend Peter des.
W: Can yu play basketball?
M: Yes. We have basketball games every Friday. I like them.
W: I like basketball games, t. They are relaxing.
听下面一段独白，回答第18至20题
Hi, I am Frank. There are three peple in my family, my father, my mther and I. My father likes vegetables and milk. My mther likes fruit and eggs; I like hamburgers. We all like sprts. My father’s favrite sprt is sccer. He plays every afternn. Vlleyball is my mther’s favrite sprt. She ften plays it every weekend. I like tennis best. I ften watch tennis games n TV.
参考答案
1—5 ABCBA 6—10 BCACB 11—15 CBCBA 16—20 CBABC
21—25 ACBCB 26—30 CBBCA 31—35 ABBCC 36—40 ECBDA
She is frm China.
42．Her dg—Liti
43．I have a brther .
44．我星期一和星期三有艺术课。
45．Mary认为它们非常的有趣。
46—50 BAACB 51—55 CABAB
56．am 57．healthy 58．t 59．with 60．bread
61．an 62．Fr 63．gets 64. t g 65．my
Ⅳ、写作（共两节，满分25分）
书面表达写作：略