四川省遂宁中学2024-2025学年上学期八年级入学考试英语试题

这是一份四川省遂宁中学2024-2025学年上学期八年级入学考试英语试题，共8页。试卷主要包含了听力测试，选择填空，补全对话，完形填空等内容，欢迎下载使用。
一、听力测试。（共30分）
第一节 (每小题1.5分，共9分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1. A. It’s rainy.B. It’s far away.C. It’s very beautiful.
2. A. Abut 5 minutes.B. By bike. C. I can draw.
3. A. Of curse nt.B. Yu’re welcme.C. Sure, n prblem.
4. A. Yes, he des. B. N, he can’t.C. N, he isn’t.
5. A. Sunds gd.B. Yu, t. C. That’s OK.
6. A.Frm China.B. Last Tuesday. C. In the classrm.
第二节（每小题1.5分，共9分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7. A. A cup f tea. B. A cup f milk. C. Sme bread.
8. A. He played tennis.B. He played sccer.C. He played chess.
9. A. 9:30 p.m.B. 10:30 p.m.C. 11:30 p.m.
10. A. In a cinema.B. In a shp.C. In a restaurant.
11. A. Tall with straight hair.B. Tall with lng hair.C. Shrt with shrt hair.
12. A. Tw kilmeters.B. Twelve kilmeters.C. Twenty kilmeters.
第三节（每小题1.5分，共6分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听下面一段材料，回答第13和14小题。
13. What is Dingding ding nw?
A. Sleeping. B. Playing. C. Dancing.
14. Why des Julie like Dingding?
A. Because he’s cute. B. Because he’s funny. C. Because he’s scary.
听下面一段材料，回答第15和16小题。
15. What club des the by want t jin?
A. The Music Club.B. The Chinese Club. C. The Sprts Club.
16. Why des Lucy want t jin the Chinese Club?
A. Because she likes Chinese.
B. Because she isn’t gd at Chinese.
C. Because she can speak Chinese well.
第四节（每小题1.5分，共6分）
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17. Peter stayed in the village fr abut _______.
A. 7 days.B. 15 days. C. 30 days.
18. Hw ld is Peter’s grandfather?
A. 63. B. 65.C. 67.
19. What did Peter’s grandmther d after breakfast?
A. Milked the cw.B. Rde the hrse.C. Fed the sheep.
20. Peter’s grandfather taught him t _______ n Sunday.
A. readB. singC. swim
第二部分 基础知识运用
二、选择填空。单项选择题，从以下各题的ABC三个选项中选择正确答案。(共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)
21．——What did ________ ld man buy in yur shp?
——He bught ________ umbrella.
A．the；anB．a；/C．/；the
22. _____________, Tm exercises and eats vegetables every day.
A. T keep healthy B. Keep healthy C. Keeping healthy
23.——Tm, ________ d yu g t schl by taxi?
——Oh, I never d that. I like riding my bike every day.
A．hw ftenB．hw snC．hw lng
24．——Wh sings ________ f the three girls?
——Mary. I think n ne sings ________ beautifully than her.
A．better; the mstB．better; mreC．the best; mre
25．— ________ wnderful the music is!
— Yes. It makes me relaxed after a busy day.
A. Hw B. What a C. What
26．——Can yu play sccer with us after schl, Bb?
——Srry, I ________ d my hmewrk first.
A．canB．mustC．might
27．—________ is it frm yur hme t schl?
— Abut 25 minutes’ walk.
A. Hw far B. Hw lng C. Hw much
28．— ________
— He is really tall and handsme.
A. Hw is Je? B. What des Je like? C. What des Je lk like?
29．— May I use yur dictinary?
— Srry, I ________ it.
A. use B. used C. am using
30.—My parents want me t be a pliceman in the future, but I’m nt sure abut that.
——Nt everyne knws ________. Just make sure yu try yur best.
A.what d they want t be B.what are they C.what they will be
三、补全对话。根据对话内容，从下面选出适当的选项补全对话。(共5小题，每小题2分，计10分)
A: Hi, Peter, d yu knw Chang’an?
B: Yes. ___31___ It was very imprtant in ld China.
A: S it was. Nw, a mvie, Chang’an, shws the ld city and the stries behind it.
B: Sunds great. Did yu watch it?
A: Yes. ___32___
B: Can yu tell me sme things abut it?
A: It’s a cartn (卡通片). ___33__ Yu can see many details (细节) f peple’s life, fd, clthing, husing and thers.
B: ___34___
A: That’s right. When telling the stry f Li Bai, the mvie shws his inner (内心的) wrld s that peple can knw and feel the culture (文化) f that time.
B: Excellent. ___35__
A. I lve it very much.
B. I can’t wait (等待) t watch it.
C. I knw a little in the histry class.
D. It is beautiful and every detail is very real.
E. Peple must feel that they are really in Chang’an.
四、完形填空。根据短文内容，从选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案。(共15小题，总分15分。A篇共5小题，每小题1分，总分5分;B篇共10小题，每小题1分，计10分)
A
What is time? We can’t see it and we can’t catch it. ___36___ we can feel it g away. Time is always with us in ur life. When we wash ur faces, time runs away with us. And when we play, time ges away.
Time is fair (公平的) t ___37___ f us. If we make gd use f it, time will give us a lt, r we will____38___ a lt. We can’t find the best time again.
Tday time is getting ___39___ t us. We ften hear peple say, “Time is mney. Time is life.” It tells us nt t waste (浪费) any time.
My friends, we must keep it in mind, “Time waits fr n man. “Nw we are ____40___ yung. It is the best time fr us t learn. We must make gd use f every minute and be the masters (主人) f time.
36. A. BecauseB. ButC. Or
37. A. everyneB. nbdyC. smene
38. A. findB. getC. lse
39. A. ppularB. imprtantC. difficult
40. A. stillB. justC. als
B
I was ging t buy sme fruit and medicine fr my headache (头疼). After I parked my car, I went int the ____41____. Only a few peple were shpping in it.
In the market, I saw a little girl ____42____ in a shpping cart (购物车). She lked t be 9 mnths ld with curly hair and blue eyes.
She was such a lvely girl that I culdn’t ____43___ my eyes away. Then I did what I always d with children: gave her my best smile. I may have lked a bit ____44____, but it came frm my heart. I have learned that everyne ____45____ a smile smetimes, even strangers at the market in a rush t get hme.
She seemed nt t knw ____46____ t deal with (处理) my smile. But finally she smiled. I laughed and waved gdbye. And she blew me a kiss. That put a smile n my face and then I gt a ____47____ in return frm every shpper I passed. I was still smiling when I gt hme and ____48____ I had frgtten t get medicine. Luckily, I didn’t need it. My headache was gne.
Want t change the wrld? Try ___49____， this tiring wrld wuld be a better place. If yu are ___50____ , yu will be blwn a kiss and it may make yur headache g away.
41. A. shp B. park C. market D. restaurant
42. A. sittingB. readingC. sleeping D. selling
43. A. thrwB. sendC. mveD. give
44. A. sadB. angryC. hungryD. crazy
45. A. needsB. hatesC. makesD. gives
46. A. whyB. hwC. whereD. when
47. A. helpB. fruitC. smileD. place
48. A. decidedB. nticedC. feltD. received
49. A. wavingB. sayingC. smilingD. talking
50. A. mvedB. surprisedC. excitedD. lucky
五、阅读理解，请认真阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
A
Mike is an 8-year-ld by. One day after schl, he sees a small dg. It is lst.
Mike ges t the dg. “Hell,” he says t the dg. The dg has a cllar (颈圈). He lks at the black cllar. The dg’s name is n it. Its name is Spike. Spike is a nice, brwn dg. “Cme n, Spike,” Mike says t the dg.
Mike takes Spike t his hme. But he knws Spike isn’t his dg. He wants t help it find his wner (主人) . Mike writes sme psters (布告) and puts them up n bus stps. The psters say “Fund Dg”. But n ne cmes t find Spike.
Nw, Spike has a new huse in Mike’s rm. It is under the desk. And they are gd friends.
51. What is n the dg’s cllar?
A. A ring.B. A phne number.C. Its name. D. Its wner.
52. Spike is a ________ dg.
A. small blackB. small brwnC. big black D. big brwn
53. Hw des Mike help Spike find its wner?
A. He calls him.B. He e-mails him.
C. He writes sme psters.D. He asks his mther fr help.
54. Where is Spike’s new huse nw?
A. Under the bed.B. Under the sfa. C. Under the chair. D. Under the desk.
55. Frm the passage (短文) we knw ________.
A. Mike is a nice byB. Mike’s dg is lst
C. Spike’s wner is a girlD. dgs are ur gd friends
B
June 4, 2022
Dear Directr,
I think the students in ur schl shuld wear unifrms. Many schls already have them. Unifrms will help ur families save mney, since we wuld have t buy nly ne r tw unifrms fr the whle year. Unifrms als give us mre pride in ur schl. And best f all, if we all wre unifrms, kids wuldn’t laugh at each ther abut their clthes.
I knw sme students think unifrms are ugly and uncmfrtable. But maybe we can pick a unifrm that everyne likes. I think this is a wnderful idea fr ur schl.
Lking frward t yur reply by Tuesday, which means three days later.
Best wishes.
Yurs,
Li Ming
56. Wh is this letter written by?
A. A teacher.B. A father. C. A student. D. A mther.
57. Which f the fllwing is a fact abut unifrms?
A. They are uncmfrtable.B. Sme schls already have them.
C. They are ugly.D. They are t expensive.
58. Why des Li Ming write this letter?
A. T ask fr new clthes.B. T say srry t the directr.
C. T thank the directr.D. T give sme suggestins.
59. Why d sme students say n t the schl unifrms?
A. They guess the directr is pr.
B. They think unifrms are t cheap.
C. They agree that schl pride is silly.
D. They believe unifrms can be uncmfrtable.
60. What day is it when Li Ming writes the letter?
A. Saturday. B. Sunday. C. Mnday. D. Thursday.

C
61. Which city d the three peple stay?
A. Dave-Trnt; Anna-Chengdu; Jane-Tasmania
B. Dave-Tasmania; Anna-Trnt; Jane-Chengdu
C. Dave-Tasmania; Anna-Chengdu; Jane-Trnt
62. Hw many peple are there at Dave’s hme?
A. Three.B. Fur.C. Five.
63. Which is the right weather symbl f rainbw?
A. B. C.
64. What can we knw frm Jane’s diary?
A. Jane’s mther usually d husewrk n the weekend.
B. The new restaurant is nt far frm Jane’s hme.
C. Chicken sup is Jane’s sister’s favrite fd.
65. Which f the fllwing questins is answered?
A. What is Dave’s brther ding?
B. When did Anna and her friend cme back?
C. Hw much d Jane and her family eat fr the lunch?
D
D yu like watching TV r playing games? Hw many hurs d yu use yur phne a day? We call the time we spend n TV, cmputers and phnes “screen (屏幕) time”.
In a study (研究), scientists ask 577, 000 children hw much time they spend n screens, schlwrk and sprts every day. They find abut 68% f them spend mre than 2 hurs n screens.
Tw hurs f screen time a day is bad fr children’s health. The study shws harm (伤害) starts after 75 minutes f screen time fr girls and 105 minutes fr bys. Why is that? “Just because ▲ . In ur study, 24% f bys spend an hur a day ding sprts, but nly 14% f girls d that,” Dr. Khan says.
S it is imprtant fr students t d sprts and balance (平衡) their screen time. Tm has a “three-time system(系统) fr his sn Patrick—a “g time” fr schlwrk, a “slw time” t play games r talk with friends n the Internet and a “green time” fr sprts. “We need t get children ut and mve. They can walk, ride a bike and play ftball,” he says.
66．Frm the passage, we knw 68% f the 577, 000 children spend ___________ n screens.
A．mre than 2 hurs B．an hur
C．75 minutes D．105 minutes
67．Which f the fllwing is the best fr “ ▲ ” in Paragraph 3?
A．girls can d sprts wellB．bys d nt like sprts
C．bys take mre exerciseD．girls d mre schlwrk
68．Maybe this passage is fr _________.
A．actrsB．studentsC．dctrsD．wrkers
69．Which f the fllwing is Nt in the “three-time system”?
A. a “g time ” fr schlwrk B. a “free time” t play games
C. a “slw time” t talk with friends D. a “green time” fr sprts
70.The writer tells us that _________.
A．girls shuldn’t spend time n screens
B．tw hurs f screen time is gd fr bys
C．it is imprtant fr students t d their schlwrk
D．children shuld d sprts t balance their screen time
II卷(45分)
一、单词拼写。在对话空格中填上适当的单词，使对话完整正确。一空一词（含缩写词）。(共5小题，每小题1分，计5分)
71．Thusands f v____ _____ visit the museum every day.
72．It is i t d a warm up exercise befre yu g swimming.
73．Mnkey are gd at ________ （爬）the trees. I like them.
74．Did yu d ________ (smething) interesting in yur summer vacatin?
75． (luck),they went ut f the frest befre the rain came.
二、完成句子。（每空1分，共10分）
根据所给提示，完成句子。每空一词，含缩略词。
76．Eric went t the beach last night.（改为否定句）
Eric t the beach last night.
77．He is making sup in the kitchen right nw. (对画线部分提问)
he making sup right nw?
78．We spent abut a quarter getting t schl.（改为同义句）
us abut a quarter t get t schl.
79．Tm is tall, but Mike is taller.(合并为一句)
Mike is Tm.
80．我的父母对我在学习方面要求严格。（完成译句）
My parents are me in my study.
三、短文填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面材料，在空白处填入1个恰当的词或括号内单词的正确形式，并将答案写在答题卡的相应位置。
T me, music is fd and water. I can’t live withut music. I knw this is nt true fr everybdy. Many peple dn’t g t cncerts ___81___ listen t music. But music is everywhere in ___82___ (we) life. Fr example, when yu watch films r TV plays, wuld yu feel them ___83___ (interest) if there were n music? Yu wuld find them bring. And when yu are ___84___ (wait) fr the train r the plane, yu wuld like t listen t music ___85___ it makes the time g by fast.
Sme peple like t sit by the sea and listen t the sund f the sea. Sme enjy ___86___ (listen) t the singing f the birds. Thse sunds are sme ___87___ (kind) f music.
Smene said, “Thrugh music a child ges int a wrld f beauty and ___88___ (learn) t take care f thers and makes his mind and bdy strng.” Music is ___89___ imprtant part f ur lives. It can give us a ____90____ (difference) wrld.
四、书面表达(计20分)
丰富多彩的暑假已经结束，假如你是李明，你的加拿大的笔友Andrew想了解你的假期生活。请发一个电子邮件给他，描述一下你的假期是如何度过的。内容包括：
1. 你假期通常做些什么；(不超过3点)
2. 回顾你刚过去的暑假一个有趣的经历或旅途等（列举其中的一些活动或事情，2-3项）；
3. 你对自己这个暑假的评价；
4. 期待对方回电子邮件，也想了解他的假期。
注意：
词数100左右，开头和结尾已经给出，不计入总词数；
文中不要出现真实的校名和人名。
3. 注意使用正确的时态
Dear Andrew,
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yurs,
Li Ming
英语答案
一、听力。(共20题，每小题1.5分，满分30分)
1-5 ABCCA 6-10 BCABC
11-15 ABCAA 16-20 BCBAC
第二部分 基础知识运用 (共30小题，满分35分)
二、单项选择题。(共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
21-25．A A ACA 26-30．BACCC
三、补全对话。(共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分)
31-35 C A D E B
四、完形填空。(共15小题，满分15分。A篇共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分;B篇共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分)
A篇 36-40 BACBA
B篇 41-45 CACDA 46-50 BCBCD
阅读理解(共20小题，满分40分)
五、阅读判断。(共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分)
A篇 51-55 CBCDA
B篇 56-60 CBDDA
C篇 61-65 CBABA
D篇 66-70 ACBBD
II卷(45分)
一、单词拼写。(共5小题，每小题1分，共5分)
71．visitrs 72. (i)mprtant 73．climbing 74．anything 75．Luckily
二、完成句子。（每空1分，共10分）
76．didn't g 77．Where is 78．It tk 79．taller than 80．strict with
三、短文填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
81. r 82. ur 83. interesting 84. waiting 85. because
86. listening 87. kinds 88. learns 89. an 90. different
五、书面表达(满分20分)
Dear Andrew,
I am glad t receive yur letter. Nw let me tell yu smething abut my summer vacatin.
During my hlidays, I usually read bks, play sprts, and travel with my family. This summer, I had an unfrgettable trip t Beijing. We visited the Great Wall, the Frbidden City, and the Summer Palace. The scenery was breathtaking, and I learned a lt abut Chinese histry and culture. I think this summer was fantastic because I nt nly had fun but als gained knwledge.
I am lking frward t hearing abut yur hliday experiences. Please write back sn!
Yurs,
Li Ming
Dave
We can’t g ut because f the bad weather. Nw, I’m playing chess with my father. My brther is reading in his rm and my mm is talking n the phne with her friend. My mm says she will take us t make a snwman tmrrw. It will be very interesting
Anna
It was raining hard in the mrning. But I enjyed reading in the library with my friends. It was relaxing. At nn, the rain stpped and the sun came ut. We saw the rainbw in the sky. It has seven clrs. Hw lucky we are! In the afternn, my friend and I went bike riding in the park. It was fun.
Jane
It was Sunday and it was ht tday. My mm asked my sister and I t help her d sme washing. After that, we ate ut fr lunch at a new restaurant near my huse. The fd there is very delicius. The chicken sup is ppular. But I like beef ndles best.