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    英语七年级上册(2024)Unit 6 A Day in the Life精练

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    这是一份英语七年级上册(2024)Unit 6 A Day in the Life精练,文件包含Unit6综合素质评价doc、Unit6综合素质评价mp3等2份试卷配套教学资源,其中试卷共16页, 欢迎下载使用。

    一、听说应用(本大题共30 小题, 每小题1 分, 共30 分; A、B、C、D 部分为听力理解, E 部分为情景对话)
    A. 听句子(本题共5 小题, 每小题1 分, 共5 分)
    请根据所听内容, 选择符合题意的图画回答问题。每个句子听两遍。
    ( ) 1. What time des Mike ften get up?
    A. B. C.
    ( ) 2. What des Mike usually d in the afternn?
    A. B. C.
    ( ) 3. What d many peple like t d in the evening?
    A. B. C.
    ( ) 4. What lessn des Mary have at 8:30 ?
    A. B. C.
    ( ) 5. Wh usually takes a walk in the park after dinner?
    A. B. C.
    B. 听对话(本题共10 小题, 每小题1 分, 共10 分)
    请根据每段对话的内容回答问题, 从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案。每段对话听两遍。
    听第一段对话, 回答第6 小题。
    ( ) 6. What des Sandy d after schl every day?
    A. He ges swimming. B. He des his hmewrk.
    C. He reads bks.
    听第二段对话, 回答第7 小题。
    ( ) 7. When des Peter watch TV?
    A. Every day. B. On weekends. C. After schl.
    听第三段对话, 回答第8 小题。
    ( ) 8. What time des the girl’s brther g t bed every day?
    A. At 8 : 30. B. At 9 : 30. C. At 10 : 30.
    听第四段对话, 回答第9 小题。
    ( ) 9. Which class begins at 8: 00?
    A. The PE class. B. The gegraphy class. C. The English class.
    听第五段对话, 回答第10 小题。
    ( ) 10. Where des the girl d exercise at 10: 00?
    A. At hme. B. On the playgrund. C. In the park.
    听第六段对话, 回答第11-12 小题。
    ( ) 11. What time is it nw?
    A. 10 : 00. B. 9 : 45. C. 10 : 15.
    ( ) 12. What des the by have t d?
    A. Prepare the schlbag. B. G t schl.
    C. G t bed.
    听第七段对话, 回答第13-15 小题。
    ( ) 13. What des Daniel d in the park?
    A. He plays basketball. B. He has a pian lessn.
    C. He draws pictures.
    ( ) 14. What lessn des Anna have at nine?
    A. A basketball lessn. B. An art lessn.
    C. A pian lessn.
    ( ) 15. Wh ften draws pictures?
    A. Daniel. B. Daniel’s sister. C. Anna’s sister.
    C. 听短文(本题共5 小题, 每小题1 分, 共5 分)
    请根据所听内容, 从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案。短文听两遍。
    ( ) 16. Hw ld is Kate?
    A. 13. B. 15. C. 14.
    ( ) 17. What des Kate d at 7:30 a. m. ?
    A. She eats breakfast.
    B. She gets up.
    C. She runs.
    ( ) 18. What time des Kate play tennis in the mrning?
    A. At 8 : 00. B. At 9:30. C. At 8:45.
    ( ) 19. Hw lng des Kate play tennis in the mrning?
    A. Fr three hurs. B. Fr tw hurs. C. Fr ne hur.
    ( ) 20. What des Kate usually d after dinner?
    A. She watches TV. B. She plays tennis. C. She reads bks.
    D. 听填信息(本题共5 小题, 每小题1 分, 共5 分)
    你将听到一篇关于Mnica 生活安排的短文。请你根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡。短文听两遍。
    E. 情景对话(本题共5 小题, 每小题1 分, 共5 分)
    请通读下面对话, 根据对话内容, 从方框内的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项, 选项中有一项为多余选项。
    A: Gd mrning, Jill. Can I ask yu sme questins?
    B: Yes, sure.
    A: D yu have healthy habits?
    B: 26.________ Every day I get up early and g t bed early.
    A: What time d yu usually get up?
    B: 27.________
    A: D yu eat healthy fd every day?
    B: Yes. 28.________
    A: And d yu exercise every day?
    B: 29.________
    A: Well, what time d yu g t bed in the evening?
    B: 30.________
    A: Oh, yur habits are really gd.
    二、单项选择(本大题共10 小题, 每小题1 分, 共10 分)
    请从下面A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
    ( ) 31. Rick has _________ breakfast at seven ’clck.
    A. a B. an C. / D. the
    ( ) 32. He _________ his hmewrk n Sundays.
    A. desn’t B. dn’t d C. desn’t d D. dn’t
    ( ) 33. When des yur brther _________ schl and _________ hme every day?
    A. g t; get B. get; ges
    C. g; get t D. g t; gets
    ( ) 34. It’s imprtant fr us _________ hard in rder t have a better(更好的) life.
    A. wrk B. t wrk C. wrking D. wrks
    ( ) 35. —What time d yu _________?
    —At 5 : 30.________ I like running in the mrning.
    A. get up B. g t bed C. eat dinner D. g hme
    ( ) 36. —_________ des yur father g t wrk n Mnday?
    —At half past eight.
    A. Where B. What time C. What D. Why
    ( ) 37. —Help yur brther _________, Anne.
    —OK, but where are his sweater and trusers?
    A. brush his teeth B. get up
    C. get dressed D. eat breakfast
    ( ) 38. —_________ des Lily usually g t see her grandparents?
    —On Saturdays.
    A. When B. Where C. What D. Hw much
    ( ) 39. [2023 连云港] —_________ have yu been a member f the Yuth League?
    —Fr three years.
    A. Hw lng B. Hw many C. Hw ften D. Hw far
    ( ) 40. Betty is slw in ding everything, s it’s impssible (不可能的) fr her _________ t the wrk n time.
    A. finish B. spend C. remember D. discver
    三、完形填空(本大题共10 小题, 每小题1 分, 共10 分)
    请通读下面短文, 掌握其大意, 从每小题所给的四个选项中选出一个最佳答案。
    Amy is a student. She gets up very 41 in the mrning. She is the first t cme t the classrm every time. Then she reads English because it’s her favurite 42 . She has breakfast at 7 : 00 a.m. At 7:20, she 43 t schl with her friends because her hme is nt far frm schl. She makes friends 44 her classmates and they all lve her. She has six classes every day.
    After schl, she ften des lts f activities. Smetimes, she reads bks in the schl 45 . It’s a nice time fr her. Smetimes, she 46 because she jins the schl music club. She thinks her life is 47 . She gets hme at 6 :00 p.m. After dinner, she always des her 48 first. She likes studying. On weekends, she is free, s she has 49 time t exercise. Running and swimming are her favurite sprts. Her parents are 50 every day, and they have n time t stay with her.
    ( ) 41. A. early B. late C. happily D. really
    ( ) 42. A. game B. subject C. shw D. persn
    ( ) 43. A. runs B. likes C. walks D. rises
    ( ) 44. A. with B. fr C. at D. f
    ( ) 45. A. ffice B. party C. library D. restaurant
    ( ) 46. A. plays the vilin B. ges swimming
    C. plays chess D. ges painting
    ( ) 47. A. interesting B. bring C. difficult D. imprtant
    ( ) 48. A. class B. shwer C. hmewrk D. husewrk
    ( ) 49. A. many B. much C. little D. a lt
    ( ) 50. A. free B. happy C. busy D. excellent
    四、阅读理解(本大题共10 小题, 每小题2 分, 共20 分)
    请阅读A、B 两篇短文, 从每小题所给的四个选项中选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。
    A
    ( ) 51. What shuld yu d in the mrning?
    A. Drink 3 liters f water. B. Eat a lt f fd.
    C. Wake up early. D. Read a bk.
    ( ) 52. Yu shuld _________ every 30 minutes.
    A. drink sme water B. enjy the mrning sun
    C. get away frm the cmputer D. brush yur teeth
    ( ) 53. What’s the meaning f the underlined wrd “nap” in Chinese?
    A. 淋浴 B. 小睡; 打盹儿 C. 锻炼 D. 穿衣服
    ( ) 54. Befre yu g t sleep, it is gd t _________.
    A. exercise B. read bks
    C. play with yur phne D. drink sme water
    ( ) 55. What time shuld yu g t bed at night?
    A. By 9 : 00. B. By 9 : 30.
    C. By l0 : 00. D. By 10 : 30.
    B
    Nancy gets up early in the mrning. She has breakfast at hme and then ges t schl. She walks t the bus stp and takes a bus. She gets t schl at abut half past seven.
    Nancy is never late fr schl. She likes her schl and wrks hard. Classes begin at 8 : 00. She has six classes every day. Nancy is gd at all her lessns, and she likes Chinese best.
    Usually Nancy has lunch at schl. She ges hme at five in the afternn. Smetimes, she helps her friends with their lessns. After dinner she usually watches TV news. Then she des her hmewrk. She ges t bed at abut 9 : 30.________ Nancy is a gd girl.
    ( ) 56. Where des Nancy have breakfast?
    A. She has breakfast at hme.
    B. She has breakfast at schl.
    C. She has breakfast n her way t schl.
    D. She has breakfast n the bus.
    ( ) 57. What time des Nancy get t schl?
    A. At abut 6 : 30. B. At abut 7 : 00.
    C. At abut 7 : 30. D. At abut 8 : 30.
    ( ) 58. What is Nancy’s favurite subject?
    A. Chinese. B. Math.
    C. English. D. Science.
    ( ) 59. Wh des Nancy smetimes help with the lessns?
    A. Her brther. B. Her friends.
    C. Her sister. D. Her teachers.
    ( ) 60. What des Nancy usually d after dinner?
    A. She plays cmputer games.
    B. She reads sme English stries.
    C. She watches TV and then listens t music.
    D. She watches TV news and des her hmewrk.
    五、词汇运用(本大题共10 小题, 每小题1 分, 共10 分)
    A) 用括号中所给单词的适当形式填空。
    61. The dctr says that an adult (成年人) has 28-32 _________ (tth).
    62. They’re preparing _________ (leave) fr the Great Wall tmrrw.
    63. My sister wants t be a _________ (reprt) when she grws up.
    64. Bb and Tm finish _________ (play) sccer at 4: 00 p.m.
    65. [2023 安徽改编] Students _________ (usual) listen t the teacher’s advice and act n it.
    B) 根据汉语意思完成英文句子。
    66. 他常常帮助他的妈妈做家务。
    He ften helps his mther _________ _________.
    67. 我总是在睡觉前洗个澡。
    I always _________ _________ _________ befre I g t bed.
    68. ——你爸爸几点上床睡觉?
    ——九点钟。
    —What time des yur father _________ _________ _________?
    —At nine.
    69. ——周末你常常做什么?
    ——我经常去敬老院帮忙。
    —_________ _________ yu ften d _________ _________?
    —I ften help at the ld peple’s hme.
    70. [广东人文信息题] 在周末, 警察在广州塔附近值班。
    The plice are _________ _________ near the Cantn Twer n weekends.
    六、短文填空(本大题共10 小题, 每小题1.5 分, 共15 分)
    请从方框内选择适当的词, 并根据需要用其正确形式填空, 使文章语法正确、完整连贯。注意: 每空一词, 每词仅用一次, 有两词为多余项。
    Hell, everyne! I 71. _________ Anna. I’d like t tell yu my 72. _________ life. I get up at 7 ’clck in the mrning. Then I brush my 73. _________ and have breakfast after twenty minutes. After that, I g t schl 74. _________bike at 7 : 40 a.m. Every day, there are 75. _________ classes fr us. Classes begin at 8 : 00 a.m. We have English, Maths, 76. _________ and Gegraphy in the mrning. At nn, I get hme t have lunch 77. _________ have a rest. We have the afternn classes between 2 p.m. and 4 p.m. After schl, I ften play ftball n the playgrund fr 78._________hur. I 79. _________ g hme t d my hmewrk at arund 5 p.m. I like my life at schl. 80. _________ abut yu?
    七、读写综合(本大题分为A、B 两部分, 共25 分)
    A. 回答问题(本题共5 小题, 每小题2 分, 共10 分)
    请阅读下面短文, 根据所提供的信息, 回答五个问题。要求所写答案语法正确、信息完整切题。
    My name is Kelsey. I’m a mther f a middle schl student. Here’s what my day is like.
    6 :00 a. m.: get up
    I get ut f bed, and make breakfast fr my daughter, Missy.
    6:30 a. m.—7:00 a. m.: take my daughter t schl
    My daughter always ges t schl with me n ft. We enjy it because we can talk with each ther n the way.
    7:00 a. m.—11:00 a. m.: g back hme and exercise
    When I get hme, I quickly make a cup f cffee. Then I d yga (瑜伽) fr 50 minutes. I am glad t be in the Yga Club. I feel gd when I am dne.
    1:00 p. m.—4:00 p. m.: wrk frm hme
    I’m an editr (编辑), and I dn’t need t g t my wrkplace every day. Smetimes I wrk frm hme. First, I write bk reviews (评价). Then, I start t crrect (改正) the mistakes in sme writers’ bks. If I am free, I usually read a really gd bk!
    7:00 p. m.—9:00 p. m.: have dinner and take a shwer
    My favurite part f the day is making dinner. I enjy cking and my daughter lves the fd I make. Then, I take a shwer because it always helps me relax (放松).
    This is what my day is like—as busy as a bee. I always feel happy t be with my daughter and keep everything ging. I hpe yu can enjy yur life like me.
    81. Hw des Missy g t schl?
    _______________________________________________________________
    82. What club des Kelsey jin?
    _______________________________________________________________
    83. Hw lng des Kelsey wrk frm hme?
    _______________________________________________________________
    84. What is Kelsey’s favurite part f the day?
    _______________________________________________________________
    85. Hw des Kelsey feel abut her day?
    _______________________________________________________________
    B. 书面表达(本题15 分)
    86. 你班准备开展以“ 健康生活每一天” 为主题的征文活动, 请以“My Healthy Life” 为题, 写一篇英语短文参加此次活动。
    要求:
    1. 条理清楚, 语句通顺, 语法正确, 书写规范, 时态准确。
    2. 文章不得出现真实的校名、地名和考生的姓名。
    3. 词数: 不少于60。
    My Healthy Life
    ________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
    Unit 6 综合素质评价
    【听力材料】
    A. 听句子
    请根据所听内容, 选择符合题意的图画回答问题。每个句子听两遍。
    1. Mike ften gets up at seven.
    2. Mike usually plays sprts in the afternn.
    3. Many peple like t watch TV in the evening.
    4. Mary has maths at 8:30 in the mrning.
    5. After dinner, Cindy’s grandfather usually takes a walk in the park.
    B. 听对话
    请根据每段对话的内容回答问题, 从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案。每段对话听两遍。
    听第一段对话, 回答第6 小题。
    W: Sandy, d yu play tennis after schl every day?
    M: N, but I g swimming every afternn.
    听第二段对话, 回答第7 小题。
    W: When d yu watch TV, Peter?
    M: I watch TV n weekends.
    听第三段对话, 回答第8 小题。
    M: What time des yur brther g t bed every day?
    W: At 9:30.
    听第四段对话, 回答第9 小题。
    M: The English class begins at 8:00.
    W: Let’s g int the classrm.
    听第五段对话, 回答第10 小题。
    M: When d yu d exercise every day?
    W: We d exercise at 10:00 n the playgrund.
    听第六段对话, 回答第11-12 小题。
    M: Mm, what time is it nw?
    W: A quarter t ten.
    M: Oh, I have t prepare my schlbag fr tmrrw.
    W: Yes. After that, yu shuld g t bed.
    听第七段对话, 回答第13-15 小题。
    W: What time d yu get up tday, Daniel?
    M: At half past seven. Then I g t the park t play basketball with Xiaming. Hw abut yu, Anna?
    W: I get up at seven ’clck. I have a pian lessn at nine and an art lessn at half past ten. D yu like art, Daniel?
    M: N, but my sister likes it very much. She ften draws pictures.
    C. 听短文
    请根据所听内容, 从每小题所给的三个选项中选出一个最佳答案。短文听两遍。
    Kate is a tennis star. She is furteen years ld. She has gd living habits. She usually gets up at 7:00 in the mrning and she runs at 7:30. At abut 8:00, she eats breakfast. She and her friends usually play tennis at 9:30. They play fr tw hurs. At 12:00, she has lunch. After dinner she reads bks. In the evening, she usually ges t bed at 9:30.
    D. 听填信息
    你将听到一篇关于Mnica 生活安排的短文。请你根据所听内容填写下面的信息卡。短文听两遍。
    Mnica is a student. Frm Mnday t Friday, she usually gets up at half past six in the mrning. On the weekend, she gets up half an hur late. But she is busy n the weekend, t. On Saturday mrning, she des husewrk at nine ’clck. In the afternn, she helps her mther at the clthes stre. She watches a film n Sunday mrning. And in the afternn, she usually visits her grandma.
    一、A) 1~5 CCABA
    B) 6~10 ABBCB 11~15 BAACB
    C) 16~20 CCBBC
    D) 21. 6 : 30 22. husewrk 23. clthes 24. Watches 25. grandma
    E) 26~30 CEFBD
    二、31. C 【点拨】一日三餐前不加冠词, 故选C。
    32. C 【点拨】本句是一般现在时, 主语He 是第三人称单数, 否定句借助助动词des, 后面的动词用动词原形。d ne’s hmewrk 意为“做作业”, 故选C。
    33. A 【点拨】g t schl 意为“去上学”, 是固定搭配;get hme 意为“到家”, hme 是副词, 其前不加介词t。故选A。
    34. B 【点拨】“It is + 形容词+ fr sb. t d sth.”意为“对于某人来说, 做某事是……的”, 是固定句型, 故选B。
    35. A 【点拨】根据答语中的“I like running in the mrning.” 可知, 问句询问的是早上几点起床, 故选A。
    36. B 【点拨】根据答语“At half past eight.”可知, 问句是对时间提问, 故选B。
    37. C 【点拨】根据答语“... but where are his sweater and trusers?”可知, 此处表示帮助你的弟弟穿衣服。 get dressed 意为“穿衣服”, 符合语境, 故选C。
    38. A 【点拨】根据答语“On Saturdays.”可知, 问句是询问“莉莉通常什么时候去看她的祖父母? ”, 询问时间要用when, 故选A。
    39. A 【点拨】根据答语“Fr three years.”可知, 此处是询问时间段, 疑问词组要用hw lng。故选A。
    40. A 【点拨】根据“Betty is slw in ding everything,”可知, 后面意思是“所以她不可能按时完成这项工作”。finish 意为“完成”符合语境。故选A。
    三、【主旨大意】本文主要介绍了Amy 一天的学习和生活情况。
    41. A 【点拨】根据空格后的“She is the first t cme t the classrm every time.”可知, Amy 起床很早。early 意为“早”, 故选A。
    42. B 【点拨】根据空格前的“she reads English”可知, 英语是一门学科。subject 意为“学科”符合语境。故选B。
    43. C 【点拨】 根据空格后的“because her hme is nt far frm schl”可知, Amy 和她的朋友步行去上学。walk意为“走路”。故选C。
    44. A 【点拨】make friends with sb. 意为“和某人交朋友”, 是固定短语。故选A。
    45. C 【点拨】根据空格前的“she reads bks”可知, 是在图书馆。 故选C。
    46. A 【点拨】根据空格后的“because she jins the schl music club”可知, 只有A 项和加入学校音乐俱乐部有关。故选A。
    47. A 【点拨】根据文中的“After schl, she ften des lts f activities... It’s a nice time fr her.”可知, Amy 的生活很有趣。interesting 意为“有趣的”, 故选A。
    48. C 【点拨】d ne’s hmewrk 意为“做作业”, 故选C。
    49. B 【点拨】空格后的time 是不可数名词 , 要用much 修饰, 故选B。
    50. C 【点拨】根据空格后的“they have n time t stay with her”可知, 她的父母很忙。busy 意为“忙碌的”, 故选C。
    四、A) 【主旨大意】本文通过图片展示了一天的活动。
    51. C 【点拨】细节理解题。根据图片及 “Wake up early.” 可知, 在早晨你应该早起。故选C。
    52. C 【点拨】细节理解题。根据图片及 “Get away frm the cmputer every 30 minutes.”可知, 你应该每30 分钟离开电脑一次。故选C。
    53. B 【点拨】词义猜测题。根据图片可猜测, 此处nap 的意思是“小睡;打盹儿”。故选B。
    54. B 【点拨】细节理解题。根据图片及 “Read a bk befre ging t sleep. ”可知, 睡觉前, 读书是件好事。故选B。
    55. C 【点拨】细节理解题。根据图片及“G t bed by 10 p.m.”可知, 你应该在晚上10 点前入睡。故选C。
    B) 【主旨大意】本文主要讲述了Nancy 的日常生活。
    56. A 【点拨】细节理解题。根据第一段中的“She has breakfast at hme and then ges t schl.”可知, 在家吃早餐, 故选A。
    57. C 【点拨】细节理解题。根据第一段中的“She gets t schl at abut half past seven.”可知, 大约七点半到学校, 故选C。
    58. A 【点拨】细节理解题。根据第二段中的“and she likes Chinese best”可知, 最喜欢语文, 故选A。
    59. B 【点拨】细节理解题。根据第三段中的“Smetimes, she helps her friends with their lessns.”可知, 有时她帮助她的朋友学习功课, 故选B。
    60. D 【点拨】细节理解题。根据第三段中的“After dinner she usually watches TV news. Then she des her hmewrk.” 可知, 晚饭后她通常看电视新闻, 然后做作业, 故选D。
    五、A) 61. teeth 62. t leave 63. reprter 64. Playing 65. usually
    B) 66. d/with husewrk 67. take a shwer 68. g t bed
    69. What d; n weekends 70. n duty
    六、71. am 72. daily 73. teeth 74. by 75. Seven
    76. Chinese 77. and 78. an 79. usually 80. What
    七、A) 81. On ft. 82. The Yga Club.
    83. Fr three hurs. 84. Making dinner.
    85. As busy as a bee.
    B) 86. One pssible versin:
    My Healthy Life
    I have a very healthy life. Let me tell yu smething abut my life. I usually get up at 6 : 20 a. m. Then I have breakfast at 6 : 40 a.m. At 7 : 00 a.m., I g t schl. I usually ride a bike t schl. It takes me abut 10 minutes. After that I have fur classes in the mrning. In the afternn I have tw classes. My schl finishes at 4 : 00 p. m. Then I g hme at 5 : 00 p.m. In the evening I ften d my hmewrk and watch TV. I g t bed at 9 : 00 p.m.
    I’m living a healthy life.
    Mnica’s busy life
    On schl days
    She gets up at 21.________.
    On weekends
    Saturday mrning
    She des 22.________ at 9 : 00.
    Saturday afternn
    She helps her mther at the 23.________ stre.
    Sunday mrning
    She 24.________ a film.
    Sunday afternn
    She visits her 25.________.
    A. I usually walk t schl.
    B. Yes. Every mrning I run with my brther.
    C. Yes, I d.
    D. I g t bed at nine ’clck.
    E. I usually get up at six ’clck.
    F. I eat fruit and vegetables every day.
    tell be seven tth and China a usual what by day stay
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