河南省信阳市新县2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中质量监测英语试卷

这是一份河南省信阳市新县2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中质量监测英语试卷，共13页。试卷主要包含了听力理解，阅读理解，完形填空，语篇填空，补全对话，书面表达等内容，欢迎下载使用。
一、听力理解 （20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. What clur is Jim’s e-bike?
A. Red. B. White. C. Green.
2. Whse rm is it?
A. Jack’s. B. Tm’s and Jack’s. C. Tm and Jack’s.
3. What can the by have?
A. Tea and apples. B. Cffee and ranges. C. Cffee and pears(梨).
4. Hw many peple are there in the pht?
A. Tw. B. Three. C. Fur.
5. Where are the speakers?
A. At schl. B. At hme. C. In a car.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
6. Wh is the wman?
A. Ga Jie. B. Mary. C. Linda.
7. Wh is the by’s sister?
A. Linda. B. Ga jie. C. Liu Mei.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
8. Hw many peple are there in the cnversatin?
A. 2. B. 3. C. 4.
9. What’s Tina’s WeChat(微信) number?
A. 13283853639. B. 13837154649. C. 13884833639.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12 三个小题。
10. Where is Jane frm?
A. Canada. B. Cuba. C. America.
11. What des Jane lk like?
A. She has lng blnd hair and big eyes.
B. She has shrt black hair and small eyes.
C. She has lng black hair and a wide muth.
12. What clr is Jane’s schlbag?
A. Orange. B. Purple. C. Brwn.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15 三个小题。
13. What class is Mark in?
A. In Class 3. B. In Class 4. C. In Class 5.
14. Hw ld is Carrie?
A. 11. B. 12. C. 13.
15. Wh is Carrie’s English teacher?
A. Miss Lin. B. Mr.Green. C. Mr.King.
第三节 听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。

A B C D E
16. _______ 17. _______ 18. _______ 19. _______ 20. _______
二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分）
A
It's Children's Day tday. Every student is happy. They bring (带) their favrite tys t the classrm and have a ty shw (展).
Hi, my name is Sally. This is my favrite dll(玩具娃娃) Mlly. My mm gave it t me n my first day f schl. Mlly has black eyes and range hair. I buy many beautiful (漂亮的) dresses in varius clrs fr her. They are red, white, black ,,,
I lve Mlly, She is my gd friend.
Hell, my name is Adam. My favrite ty is this bear (熊). I call him Billy. My aunt (姑姑) Mna gave him t me n my birthday this year.
Billy is brwn. He has small black eyes and a big black nse. I like him because he's always there in my rm waiting fr(等待) me.
Hi, my name is Sam. My favrite ty is the building blcks (积木). My father gave them t me last year.
These building blcks are clrful. I can make beautiful huses and cars with them.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
( )21. Mlly is Sally’s .
A. dll B. aunt
C. mther D. sister
( )22. 划 线 单 词 varius 的 中 文 意 思 是“ ”。
A.相似的 B.不同的
C.深色的 D.浅色的
( )23. Adam’s bear is .
A. range B. brwn
C. red D. black
( )24. Why(为什么) des Adam like Billy?
A. Because Billy is clrful.
B. Because Billy is beautiful.
C. Because Billy is frm Adam's aunt.
D. Because Billy is always there waiting fr Adam.
( )25.划线单词 them 指代的是 。
A. the bears
B. the cars
C. the huses
D. the building blcks
B
Hell, my name is Amy. There are fur peple in my family. They are my mum, my dad, my brther Eddie and me.
This mrning, Eddie gets up with a sre thrat (嗓子疼). My mum asks me t take him t the hspital. But Eddie is very afraid (害怕的) f dctrs.“ Dn't be afraid. Dctrs will help yu. Cme n, by,” Mum says. S Eddie ges t the hspital with me.
The dctr is very kind. She asks Eddie t pen his muth (嘴) and say“ Ah”. Eddie says,“ Ahhh ...”“ Gd by! Yu’re s brave!” says the dctr. Then the dctr listens t his heart and lungs (心脏和肺).“ He’s fine,” the dctr says. She gives Eddie sme sweet medicine (甜药). Then Eddie says ▲ t the dctr, and we g hme.
Eddie is very happy nw. He thinks seeing the dctr is nt t bad. I think he will feel gd and he can g t schl and play with his friends next mrning.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
( )26. Wh takes Eddie t see the dctr?
A. His dad. B. His mum.
C. His sister. D. His friend.
( )27. What des Eddie's mum tell him?
A. He is fine. B. She has a sre thrat.
C. His medicine is sweet. D. Dctrs can help him.
( )28.文中划线单词 brave的中文意思是“ ”。
A.骄傲的 B.谦虚的 C.胆怯的 D.勇敢的
( )29.可以填入“▲”处的最佳单词是 。
A. thanks B. hell C. srry D. OK
( )30. After seeing the dctr, Eddie .
A. feels nt that afraid
B. meets his friend in the hspital
C. ges t schl in the afternn
D. desn't want t g t the hspital again
C
Hell, everyne. I’m Chen Jie. Let me tell yu abut my family!
First, there' re my grandparents. They are ver(超过)60 years ld. They live with us.
Then, there's my mum. She's 33 years ld. She's nice and always helps me with my Chinese. She als lves t ck fr us. My mum makes the best Map tfu, a famus Chinese fd!
Next, there's my dad. He's 35 and always tells funny jkes(笑话). He likes t play ping- png with me in the yard. My dad als takes me t the park, and we lve playing n the swings(秋千).
I have a big sister. She's eight years ld. She likes t read bks and draw pictures. She's gd at art! She smetimes helps me clean my rm.
Last but nt least(最后不能不提), there's my little brther. He's five and lves t play with his ty cars. He's energetic (精力充沛的) and always runs here and there in the huse. He is happy when I read him a stry befre he ges t bed.
That's my family! I lve spending (度过) time with them. They are the best!
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
( )31. What d we knw abut Chen Jie's parents?
A. They are bth nice and funny.
B. They bth can make Map tfu.
C. They are bth ver 30 years ld.
D. They bth lve playing n the swings.
( )32. Wh likes t read bks?
A. Chen Jie's dad. B. Chen Jie's mum.
C. Chen Jie's sister. D. Chen Jie's brther.
( )33. What can make Chen Jie's brther happy befre he ges t bed?
A. A jke. B. A stry.
C. Sme t y cars. D. Sme Map tfu.
( )34. Hw ld might (可能) Chen Jie be?
A. Fur. B. Six. C. Nine. D. Eleven.
( )35. What is the structure (结构) f the passage?
(①= Paragraph 1,②= Paragraph 2 ...)
A.①/②③④/⑤⑥⑦ B.①/②③/④⑤⑥⑦
C.①/②③④⑤⑥/⑦ D.①/②/③④⑤⑥⑦
D
Alex Hua Tian is a Chinese equestrian (马术运动员). 36 He lived in China befre he was 11 years ld. Nw he lives in the UK, but he ften cmes back (回到) t China. 37 He has his family and friends here in China.
“ It is right fr me t cmpete (参加比赛) fr China,” Hua Tian says. 38 His mm is very British, but she is als very Chinese in many ways (方面). She lived in China fr many years. 39 And she lves and misses China very much.
40 China's equestrian sprt will have a bright future(光明的未来).
根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使短文意思通顺、内容完整，并将其标号填写在下面题号后的横线上。
36. 37. 38. 39. 40、
三、完形填空 (共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分)
Sue's and Mnica are friends and neighbrs (邻居). They ften play tgether(一起玩) and the number games(游戏) are 41 favrite.
On a fine 42 , Mnica cmes t Sue's hme. She 43 a van(货车) with many bxes at the dr(门) f anther(另一个) neighbr.
“ We 44 a new neighbr,” Mnica says:
“ Let’s play ur 45 games with the new neighbr,” Sue says.
Then they g t the neighbr's hme, and a 46 pens (打开) the dr. He is tall and his hair is 47 . He is abut 13 years ld.
“ Gd mrning, girls. I'm Fred. Yu must be my 48 neighbrs,” Fred says.
“ 49 ! We’re here fr 12 years. Yu are my new neighbr,” Sue says.
“ Haha. Can I knw yur 50 ?” Fred asks.
“ Yes. My name is Sue, and this is my 51 Mnica,” Sue says.
“ Hell, Fred,” Mnica says.
“ Cme in and play with the 52 in these bxes. These tys are frm my dad,” Fred says.
Sue, Mnica and Fred have a 53 day.“ Nw I have 54 ld friend and a new friend. We 55 are gd friends,” Sue says.
( )41. A. her B. his
C. ur D. their
( )42. A. mrning B. afternn
C. bus D. desk
( )43. A. helps B. sees
C. buys D. knws
( )44. A. find B. excuse
C. have D. thank
( )45. A. card B. number
C. class D. pht
( )46. A. girl B. by
C. man D. wman
( )47. A. small B. wide
C. big D. shrt
( )48. A. Chinese B. English
C. new D. ld
( )49. A. Bye B. OK
C. N D. Please
( )50. A. names B. families
C. clthes D. schls
( )51. A. teacher B. friend
C. sister D. mther
( )52. A. bks B. ranges
C. tys D. erasers
( )53. A. lng B. blue
C. right D. gd
( )54. A. a B. an
C. the D. 不填
( )55. A. tw B. three
C. fur D. five
四、语篇填空 （15小题， 每小题1分，共15分）
第一节 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
My name is Paul Hunter. I'm a student in Grade Nine. I live in the USA 56 my mm and dad.
I. 57 China very much. S I have 58 Chinese bks. They are frm my dad. I read 59 every day. These bks help me a lt with my 60 . Nw I can speak Chinese 61 . My mm is a teacher in a junir high schl. What subject (科目) 62 she teach? She teaches English. She likes her students and her students like her t. They are like gd 63 . My dad is an actr. He ften 64 China, Canada and sme ther cuntries (国家). He meets a lt f peple. He likes China, t. He ften 65 China is great. I want t g t China with my family ne day.
56. 57. 58. 59. 60. .
61. 62. 63. 64. 65. .
第二节 阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
I'm Mike Simpsn. I'm 66 by f 4. Wh is yur favrite persn (人)? Fr me, Bill Simpsn is my favrite persn.
Bill is my grandfather (爷 爷). My dạd and mm are teachers 67 a junir high schl. Smetimes (有时) they 68 very busy (忙碌的). And then my grandfather cmes t my hme and takes care f(照顾) me.
Bill is my friend, t. He plays games and reads bks with me. He teaches me English. Nw I can spell“ hell”,“ thanks”,“ clr”69 many ther wrds (单词).
Bill is ld but he is like a kid ( 小 孩) smetimes. He wants care and lve, t. S I ften visit him n weekends (周末).
Bill is my favrite persn. What 70 yurs?
66. 67. 68. 69. 70. .
五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
A: Gd evening, Wang Ran.
B: Hi, Ada. Hw are yu?
A: Fine, thanks. Lk at my pht n the Badaling Great Wall (八达岭长城).
B: Ww! 71. . Are yu in Beijing nw?
A: Yes, I am. Beijing is a nice place(地方).
B: Yes, it is. Wh are the man and the wman next t yu? 72. ?
A: N, they are my uncle and my aunt.
B:73. ?
A: My uncle is an ffice wrker and my aunt is a teacher.
B:74. ?
A: She is my cusin, Alice.
B: She lks nice.75. ?
A: She is 15. And she is in a junir high schl in Beijing.
B: Oh, I see. Yu all lk happy in the pht.
A: Yes.
六、书面表达（20分）
假如你是张嫣，刚认识了一位新朋友，你迫不及待地想向你的英国笔友 Wendy介绍她。请你根据下面所给提示信息，给Wendy写一封电子邮件，向她介绍你的新朋友。
要求：
1.短文须包含提示内容中的所有要点，可适当发挥；
2.不少于60词；邮件的格式及开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Wendy,
Hw are yu? Let me tell (告诉) yu abut my new friend Yurs,
Zhang Yan
A. He thinks China is his hme.
B. She speaks very gd Chinese.
C.His dad cmes frm China, and his mm is frm the UK.
D.Because f Hua Tian, many peple in China knw abut equestrian sprts.
E.And it's nt just(仅仅) because f his father.
friend say they with well like china many visit d
2024-2025学年度上期期末质量监测试卷
七年级英语参考答案
一、听力理解
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. W: Is yur e-bike red, Jim?
M: N, my e-bike is green.
2. M: Whse rm is this?
W: Tm and Jack’s.
3. M: Mm, can I have the cup f cffee n the table?
W: Sure. And yu can als eat the tw ranges n it, but nt the pears.
4. M: Alice, is that yu in the pht?
W: Yes. And this is my friend Jane and that is my sister Jenny.
5. W·M: Gd mrning, Mr.Smith.
M: Gd mrning, bys and girls. Let’s begin ur class.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
M: Hell!
W: Hell!
M: My name is Eric. What’s yur name?
W: My name is Ga jie. Yu can call me Ms.Ga.
M: Nice t meet yu, Ms.Ga.
W: Nice t meet yu, Eric. Please sit dwn.
M: Thank yu.
W: Is Liu Mei yur sister?
M: Yes.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
M: What’s the name f that girl, Tammy?
W1: She’s my friend, Tina. Hell, Tina. Cme here. Tina, this is Bruce. Bruce, this is Tina.
W2: Nice t meet yu, Bruce.
M: Nice t meet yu, Tina. May I have yur WeChat number?
W2: Sure. It’s 13837154649.
M: My WeChat number is 13283853639.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12 三个小题。
I’m Rse. I have a new friend. Her name is Jane. She is frm America. She has lng blnd hair and big eyes. Her favrite clr is purple. Lk! Jane is in a purple T-shirt and purple pants. Her schlbag is purple, t. She lks nice and cl in purple.
听下面一段对话，回答第13至第15 三个小题。
W: Gd mrning, Mark!
M: Gd mrning, Carrie!
W: What class are yu in?
M: I’m in Class 3, Grade 7. And yu?
W: I’m in Class 4, Grade 7.
M: Wh is yur English teacher?
W: Mr.King.
M: King? Can yu spell it, please?
W: Yes. K-I-N-G, King.
M: Oh! He’s my English teacher, t.
W: Mark, I’m twelve years ld. Hw ld are yu?
M: I’m thirteen.
第三节 听下面一篇短文。按照你所听内容的先后顺序将下列图片排序。短文读两遍。
I’m Alice Green. My first name is Alice. My last name is Green. This is my schl. My schl ID card number is 666521, It’s a nice number. Lk! What’s that? It’s my schlbag. It’s black. And this is my pencil. It’s green. What’s that in English? It is a bike. It’s my bike. It’s white. And what’s that? It’s a Chinese dictinary. It’s nt my dictinary. It’s Mary’s. Let’s call Mary at 495-6548.
听力理解（20小题，每小题1分，共20分）
1-5 CCBBA 6-10 ACBBC 11-15 ABABC 16-20 ECBDA
二、阅读理解（20小题，每小题2分，共40分）
21-25：ABBDD 26-30： CDDAA 31-35：CCBBC 36-40：CAEBD
三、完形填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
41-45 DABCB 46-50 BDCCA 51-55 BCDBB
四、语篇填空（15小题，每小题1分，共15分）
第一节
with 57. like 58. many 59.them 60. Chinese
61.well 62. des 63. friends 64.visits 65.says
第二节
a 67. in 68.are 69. and 70. abut
五、补全对话（5小题，每小题2分，句中大小写错误，每两个扣0.5分，单词拼写错误每两个扣1分。答案不唯一，如果考生写出的句子符合英语表达习惯，上下文意思连贯无错误，应当给分。共10分）
71. A nice pht!/It's a nice pht/…
72. Are they yur parents /
73. What d yur uncle and aunt d /
74. Wh is the girl in red in the pht /
75. Hw ld is she /
六、书面表达（20分）
Dear Wendy,
Hw are yu? Let me tell yu abut my new friend. She is a nice girl. Her name is Wang Shanshan and her English name is Sally. She is 13 years ld. She cmes frm Nanjing, Jiangsu. She is tall and she has lng hair. She is in a white T- shirt and a pair f blue pants. Her shes are white t. She is gd at English. She ften helps me with my English. I'm happy t be her friend.
Yurs,
Zhang Yan
英语作文评分标准：(1) 本题总分为20分，按4个档次给分。 (2) 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。 (3) 词数少于60，从总分中减去2分。(4) 评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。(5) 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。(6) 如书写较差以至影响交际，将其分数降低一个档次。
(2) 各档次的给分范围和要求:
第四档
完成了试题规定的任务: 1.覆盖所有内容要点。2.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。3.语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。4.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。达到了预期的写作目的。
16～20
第三档
基本完成了试题规定的任务: 1.漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。2.作文的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。3.些许语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。4.简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
11～15分
第二档
未恰当完成试题规定的任务: 1.或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。2.结构单调，词汇项目有限。3.些许语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。4.使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
6～10分
第一档
未完成试题规定的任务：1.遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。2.结构单调，词汇项目有限。3.语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。4.语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。
信息未能传达给读者。
1～5分
0分
未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。