辽宁省沈阳市法库县东湖第一初级中学2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中测试英语试题

这是一份辽宁省沈阳市法库县东湖第一初级中学2024-2025学年七年级上学期期中测试英语试题，共6页。

（本试卷共45小题 试卷满分：90分 考试时长：90分钟）
注意事项：
1．答题前填写好答题卡上的姓名、班级、考号等信息；
2．请将答案正确填写在答题卡上，在本试卷上作答无效。
第一部分 选择题 （共50分）
一、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分；满分40分）
第一节 阅读下面语言材料，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Hell, everyne! My name is Liu Wei. I am 12 years ld. I was brn in Nanjing. I am a friendly and hnest by. I have a happy family. There are fur peple in my family—my father, my mther, my sister and me.
My father lks strng. He is a dctr in a hspital near my hme. He is s busy that he has n time t play with me. But I knw he lves me. He likes running, swimming and playing basketball.
My mther is tall and slim. Her hair is lng and black. She has many hbbies. She is gd at planting vegetables and flwers. She als enjys traveling with me. My mther des a lt fr me. She always lks after me well. And she is very strict (严格的) abut my study.
My sister is 13 years ld. Her name is Liu Li. She has big eyes. She lks cute. In her free time, she likes reading, dancing and listening t music. We study in the same schl. She is gd at all her lessns. She wants t be a Chinese teacher when she grws up.
I lve my family very much. I hpe all my family members always stay happy and healthy.
1．Liu Wei is ________ years ld.
A．elevenB．twelveC．thirteenD．furteen
2．Wh des well in planting flwers?
A．Liu Wei.B．Liu Wei’s father.C．Liu Wei’s mther.D．Liu Li.
3．What is Liu Li like?
A．Strng. B．Tall. C．Slim. D．Cute.
4．The structure（结构） f the text may be ________.
A．B．C．D．
B
Dear Linda,
Hw is yur new schl life? Gd r bad? My new schl life is very nice! D yu want t knw smething abut it? Let me tell yu.
Every mrning, ur class starts at 7:40 a.m. And we always have Chinese, English r maths fr the first class. The first class in the afternn starts at 2:30 p.m. We have fur classes in the mrning and fur in the afternn. Our schl finishes at 5:50 p.m. After schl, I like playing sccer with my classmates. My favurite day is Friday. D yu knw why? That's because I have tw English lessns n that day! English is difficult, but it is interesting and useful.
Our schl als has a ping-png game in Nvember. It's frm Nvember 5th t 8th. Yu can cme t watch the game if yu want. On Nvember 11th, we have a bk sale. We als have a sprts meeting n 25th. That's all abut my life. It's busy, but I lve it. Hw abut yurs? Write t me when yu are free.
Yurs,
David
David has ________ classes in a day.
A．fur B．eight C．six D．seven
6．What activity des David have at the end f Nvember？
A．A ping-png game. B．A bk sale. C．English Day. D．A sprts meeting.
7．What des David think f English ?
A．It’s s hard that he desn’t want t learn it.
B．It’s easy and interesting.
C．It’s hard but can be useful.
D．It’s nt nly difficult but als bring（无聊的）.
8．What’s the text abut?
A．David’s schl life. B．David’s favurite day.
C．David and his friends. D．David’s family life.
C
When I am yung, it is like the spring f my life. I am a student, I learn many new things there but I dn’t feel tired. After schl, I d sprts and play games with classmates happily. I grw up and becme (变得) taller and strnger.
When I am twenty-tw years ld, I finish schl life with a gd grade (成绩). S it’s nt difficult t get a gd jb as a nurse, after that, I dn’t have much time t play. I need t wrk hard t make mney fr my family because I get married (结婚) and have my child, a lvely daughter. During this time, it’s like the summer f my life.
One day I find white hair n my head. The days are shrt, the nights are lng. Leaves fall dwn frm the trees. But autumn als means rich. The farmers are happy because f harvest (丰收). My child gets her jb as a teacher and gets married t. I lve my family very much and enjy my life.
At 60 years ld, I dn’t need t g t wrk—I get retired (退休). My parents are getting lder and they need mre help. Time ges fast, just like winter’s cming. Smetimes I feel lnely and can nt play ftball like yung peple. Of curse, everyne needs t face it. But I have free time t d what I like. That’s als great, right?
9．What is the writer’s jb?
A．He is a nurse. B．He is teacher.
C．He is a wrker. D．He is a plicewman.
10．The writer gets a gd jb, because __________.
A．he is 22 years ldB．he gets a gd grade
C．he gets marriedD．he finishes his schl life
11．Which f the fllwing means the autumn cmes fr writer’s life?
A． I learn many new things at schl. B． I d sprts and play games with classmates.
C．I find white hair n my head. D．I get retired.
12．Which f the fllwing is the best title fr the passage (文章主题)?
A．My Happy LifeB．The Stry f My Family and I
C．Fur Seasns in a YearD．Fur Seasns in My Life
D
April 22nd is Wrld Earth Day. It’s a day that tells us t care abut ur planet.
The Earth faces a lt f prblems. Glbal (全球的) warming is the biggest prblem in the wrld. It makes the Earth ht and changes the glbal weather.
It als makes the sea level (海平面) rise. If the sea level keeps rising, sme places such as the Maldives, St Petersburg in Russia and Bangkk in Thailand may disappear under water in just a few years.
Anther big prblem is water pllutin. We can nly use 3% f the Earth’s water. But peple thrw rubbish and pur (倾倒) dirty water int rivers and the sea. Almst 884 millin peple dn’t have clean water t drink.
Besides, peple are using up (耗尽) natural resurces (资源). Frests are becming smaller and smaller because peple cut them dwn fr building. There will be n cal t use n the Earth by 2158 and il will dry up by 2050.
It’s everyne’s duty t prtect the Earth.
13．When d Chinese peple have Wrld Earth Day?
A．In spring.B．In summer.C．In autumn.D．In winter.
14．Which f the fllwing is the biggest envirnmental(环境的) prblem?
A．Water pllutin. B．Air pllutin. C．Glbal warming. D．Cutting dwn trees.
15．What can be the result(结果) f glbal warming accrding t the text?
A．The sea level will rise.B．The weather will becme cld.
C．Sme cuntries will g up.D．Peple will have n clean water.
16．What may the writer talk abut after the end f the last paragraph?
A．When the Earth will lse cal and il.B．What we can d t prtect the Earth.
C．Hw we can cntrl glbal warming.D．Why the Earth has s many prblems.
阅读短文，从方框内所给的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，其中有
一个多余的选项。
True friendships are very imprtant. They make us much happier. Hwever, it’s nt always easy t be a gd friend. 17
Be there when they need yu. If yur friend is in need, give him a hand. 18 Let yur friends see they can cunt n yu. If they’re true friends, yu’ll be able t expect them, t.
19 Dn’t d all the talking. Listen carefully t what yur friend has t say. Let yur friend knw yu care what he r she thinks.
Learn t frgive (原谅) . Yu shuld be able t frgive yur friends if they d smething that hurts yu. First, let them knw hw yu feel. If yur friends are srry fr what they did, yu shuld frgive them. 20
If yu take the suggestins(建议) abve, I’m sure yu’ll have many friends and live happily.
A．Be a gd listener.
B．Here are sme rules t help.
C．After all(毕竟), everyne may make mistakes.
D．Yu always remember them and the time yu shared.
E．Fr example, if yur friend is in hspital, g and visit.
二、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）
阅读短文，理解其大意，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Everyne likes sprts. We can 21 many peple playing sprts everywhere. Sprts make us 22 . D yu think s?
I am a student frm N.1 Middle Schl. My schl life is 23 . We have a lt f clurful subjects at schl. In the mrning we have fur 24 . In the afternn there are nly tw. PE is my favurite subject. Mr Wang 25 us very well. He is very friendly. He can run very fast. We all like him. Alice sits next t me. She likes 26 best. She sings well. Our classmates all 27 her sngs.
After schl, I ften 28 with my friends. I like it a lt. Of curse, I’m gd at it. This Friday we will have a basketball game with N.2 Middle Schl. I’m ne f the 29 . S I must practise it every day. I’m tired but 30 .
21．A．talkB．sayC．see D．lk
22．A．tidyB．bigC．healthyD．ld
23．A．interestingB．tiringC．relaxingD．easy
24．A．clubsB．activitiesC．mealsD．classes
25．A．asksB．teachesC．findsD．frgets
26．A．musicB．artC．mathsD．histry
27．A．helpB．makeC．letD．lve
28．A．play chessB．play the guitarC．play the drumsD．play basketball
29．A．singersB．teachersC．playersD．friends
30．A．angryB．happyC．shyD．nervus
第二部分 非选择题（共40分）
三、语篇填空（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）
阅读短文，在空白处填入一个适当的单词或用括号内所给词的正确形式填空，使短文通畅、连贯。
Hell everyne. Welcme t my blg. My name is Harry, and I cme frm Germany. Last week, I read 31 article abut 32 (prtect) the Earth. I wuld like t share it with yu.
The Earth is a wnderful place. There’re frests and rivers, muntains and fields. Besides (除了) the natural beauty, There are als different 33 (seasn) and weather. Spring is warm, and it ften 34 (rain) heavily in summer. In autumn, leaves are clrful. In winter, it is ften cld and 35 (snw), s it’s very exciting 36 (make) snwmen. The Earth is ur hme, and it prvides us 37 air, water and fd. But tday there 38 (be) a lt f 39 (pllute). We burn things t make energy, and this pllutes the air. We thrw away s much rubbish that we pllute the land. We must stp 40 (d) these things t prtect the Earth fr ur future.
I want t make friends with junir high schl students frm all ver the wrld. If yu have smething gd t share with me, email me, please.
四、阅读与表达（共4小题，41~43小题，每小题2分，44小题4分；满分10分）
阅读短文，然后根据内容回答问题。
The fur seasns
Spring In spring, the weather starts t get warm. The wind blws gently. It ften rains. Plants start t grw. Everything turns green. It is exciting t take a trip in spring.
Summer The weather is ht in summer. The sun shines brightly. Many peple like t g t the beach and swim in the sea. It is nice t eat ice cream in the ht weather.
Autumn In autumn, everything changes. Leaves turn brwn, red r yellw and start falling frm the trees. It is nice t have picnics at this time f year because the weather is cl and dry.
Winter Winter is ften cld and snwy. Children lve winter because they lve t play in the snw. It is interesting t make snwmen. Peple usually spend time with their relatives during the Spring Festival.
41．What d many peple like t d in summer?
42．Why is it nice t have picnics in autumn?
43．What’s the weather like in winter?
44．What’s yur favrite weather? Why? (Write 20 wrds r mre)
五、书面表达（满分20分）
45．丰富多彩的初中生活已经开始两个多月了，我们每个人都结识了自己的好朋友，你的朋友什么样子？请你根据提示要点写一篇文章，介绍你最好的朋友。
要点：1.他/她的基本信息；
他/她的外貌及爱好；
他/她的个人品质。
注意：
（1）词数80-100，标题已为你写好，不计入总词数；
（2）内容应包括所有的要点信息，可适当发挥；
（3）语句通顺、意思连贯、语法正确；
（4）文中不能出现真实姓名及学校名称。
My best friend
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2024-2025学年度第一学期七年级期中考试
英语试题参考答案
第一部分 选择题 （共50分）
一、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分；满分40分）
1-4 BCDA 5-8 BDCA 9-12 ABCD 13-16 ACAB 17-20 BEAC
二、完形填空（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）
21-25 CCADB 26-30 ADDCB
第二部分 非选择题（共40分）
三、语篇填空（共10小题，每小题1分；满分10分）
31．an 32．prtecting 33．seasns 34．rains 35．snwy
36．t make 37．with 38．is 39．pllutin 40．ding
四、阅读与表达（共4小题，41-43小题，每小题2分，44小题4分；满分10分）
41．Many peple like t g t the beach and swim in the sea.
42．Because the weather is cl and dry.
43．(It/Winter is ften) cld and snwy.
44．My favurite seasn is winter. Because in winter, it always snws. I can play in the snw and make funny snwmen. Besides, I like many winter sprts such as skiing and skating.
注意：
41-43小题
1.只要意思对即可得分。 2.时态错误扣1分。 3.应该加的介词错或没写扣1分。
4.单词拼写错误2个扣1分，单词重复错误不累计扣分，如果是关键词写错影响意思表达扣2分。
5.单词大小写错误不扣分，标点符号错误不扣分。
44题 开放性试题，言之有理即可。
1.前后需要表达一致，能够自圆其说就可以。
2.词数太少的（没到20词的）扣1分，词数多的不扣分。
五、书面表达（满分20分）
略
评分标准：
1.本题总分为20分，按五个档次给分。
评作文时要先确定档，再确定分。
确定档位时，须考虑文章的谋篇布局，时态和人称。
确定分数时，须考虑文章的语言准确性（语法和单词）。
2.评分依据：语言、结构、内涵、文彩。
3.评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，综合给定分数。
4.考生可以结合实际增加细节，适当发挥。
评分细则：内容要点
第五档
20-18分
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
-覆盖了所有内容要点
-准确地应用了较丰富的语法结构和词汇。
-语法结构和词汇使用非常正确而且地道。
-有效地使用了语法间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
*-出现一个句法（时态、语态等）使用错误或1个词法错误或2个单词拼写错误得19分
-出现一个句法使用错误或2个词法错误或3-4个单词拼写错误得18分
第四档
17-15分
完成了试题规定的任务。
-覆盖了所有内容要点，应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求
-语法结构和词汇使用基本正确。
--应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。
*-出现一个句法使用错误以及2个词法错误或2-3个单词拼写错误得17分
--出现两个句法使用错误以及2个词法错误或2-3个单词拼写错误得16分
-出现两个句法使用错误以及3个词法错误或3-4个单词拼写错误得15分
*缺1个要点
-无错误得17分-1-3处错误得16分-4-6处错误得15分
第三档
14-11分
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
-要点全，应用的语法结构和词汇能基本满足写作任务的要求
-有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。使用基本正确。
-语法结构和词汇使用非常正确而且地道。
-基本应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文连贯可读。
*-要点全，语法错误多，但篇幅够，基本达意得14-13分
-要点全，部分内容完全照抄小作文得12-11分
*缺1个要点
-出现三个句法使用错误以及3个词法错误或3-4个单词拼写错误得14分
--出现三个句法使用错误以及4个词法错误或5-6个单词拼写错误得13分
--出现四个句法使用错误以及5个词法错误或5-6个单词拼写错误得12分
-出现五个句法使用错误以及6个词法错误或6-7个单词拼写错误得11分
第二档
10-6分
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
-漏掉或未表达清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容
-应用的语法结构和词汇知识有限，不能满足任务的要求。
-有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
-缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
*缺2个要点
-出现三个句法使用错误以及3个词法错误或3-4个单词拼写错误得10-9分
--出现三个句法使用错误以及4个词法错误或5-6个单词拼写错误得8分
--出现四个句法使用错误以及5个词法错误或5-6个单词拼写错误得7分
-出现五个句法使用错误以及6个词法错误或6-7个单词拼写错误得6分
第一档
5-1分
未完成试题规定的任务。
-明显漏掉或未表达清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容
-应用的语法结构和词汇知识有限，不能满足任务的要求。
-较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。
-缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。
遗漏所有要点
-写了无关要点的四句话得5-4分--写了无关要点的三句话得3分
--写了无关要点的二句话 得2分-写了无关要点的一句话 得1分
没有任何字迹。所写内容不是英语。