重庆市2024-2025学年八年级下学期入学考试 英语试卷

这是一份重庆市2024-2025学年八年级下学期入学考试 英语试卷，共19页。试卷主要包含了5分，共9分)， A等内容，欢迎下载使用。
(全卷共九个大题 满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟)
第Ⅰ卷(105分)
Ⅰ.听力测试。(共40分)
第一节(每小题1.5分，共9分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1. A. Yu’re right. B. It was great! C. Dn’t wrry.
2. A. I like it. B. Never. C. Fr 2 hurs.
3. A. Oh, I disagree. B. That’s right. C. Sure, I’d lve t.
4. A. Sunds gd. B. It’s kind f yu. C. That’s all right.
5. A. My friend Lily. B. N, I’m nt. C. In the schl.
6. A. Gd idea. B. OK I will. C. Have a nice day.
第二节(每小题1.5分，共7.5分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7. A. /sɜːrv/ B. /’sɪəriəs/ C. /’sɜːrvənt/
8. A. Peter. B. Mark. C. Sam.
9. A. See the rbt shw. B. Study at hme. C. Have a pian lessn.
10. A. 8:00pm. B. 8:30pm. C. 9:00pm.
11.A. B. C.
第三节(每小题1.5分，共7.5分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料，回答第12-13小题。
12. Wh is Mr. White?
A. A teacher. B. A dctr. C. A singer.
13. What gift will they give t Mr. White?
A. A thank-yu letter. B. A pht bk. C. A picture f Mr. White.
听第二段材料，回答第14至16小题。
14. What did the girl NOT want t d when she was little?
A. Travel t the mn. B. Wrk in a z. C. Becme a dctr.
15. Hw des the girl like the jb as a dctr?
A. Easy. B. Great. C. Difficult.
16. What’s the main tpic f the cnversatin?
A. Dream jbs. B. Weekend activities. C. Travel.
第四节(每小题1.5分，共6分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17. When is the party?
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday C. On Sunday.
18. What d Masn and Grace advise friends t bring t the party?
A. Themselves and smething nice fr Mlly. B. Delicius things t eat and drink. C. A small gift fr Masn and Grace.
19. What shuld peple d if they can’t find the huse?
A. Ask ther peple fr help B. Call Masn and Grace fr help. C. Lk at the map n their phnes.
20. Why d the speakers give the message?
A. T ask their friends t have a trip with them.
B. T ask their friends t have dinner with them
C. T ask their friends t cme t Mlly’s birthday party.
第五节 听并填空。(每小题2分，共10分)
听两遍。依据你所听到的短文，在空白处填入适当的单词，每空一词。
Ⅱ.语法选择。(每小题1分，共10分)
从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
On my 35th birthday, I did smething I always wanted t d. I gt ___1___ the first skatebard (滑板). My friends thught I was crazy, but nly I knew why.
Tw years ag, I fell dwn frm a 12-meter waterfall and brke my legs. I had t use a wheelchair first, then crutches (拐杖). ___2___, I culd walk farther after training. Physical activities ___3___ really imprtant t me. I danced a lt befre, and I think skating is similar ___4___ it.
I tried t learn skating n my wn. I didn’t knw hw t d it well. When I skated n the street, there were always peple ___5___ me d that. I felt uneasy. I was afraid that peple wuld laugh at me, s I didn’t practice ften.
One day, my friend Mnica and I met sme very nice peple frm GRLSWIRL, ___6___ skatebarding club. S we jined the club. Everyne there gave me ___7___ when I had prblems and felt happy when I did well.
Skating als helped with my PTSD (创伤后应激障碍). Falling is cmmn in skating. Because f my accident, it was hard fr me ___8___ falling. But as I learned frm each fall and gt up again, my PTSD gt better. The mre I skated, the ___9___ I felt in my bdy and mind. ___10___ I started skating at first, I never thught it wuld bring me int a new and exciting wrld.
1. A. meB. myC. myself
2. A. LuckB. LuckyC. Luckily
3. A. becmeB. becameC. will becme
4. A. tB. frmC. in
5. A. watchB. watchedC. watching
6. A. aB. theC. /
7. A. adviceB. adviseC. advice’s
8. A. acceptB. t acceptC. accepting
9. A. healthyB. mre healthilyC. healthier
10. A. WhileB. WhenC. After
Ⅲ.完形填空。(每小题1分，共15分)
根据短文内容，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Reading is an imprtant part f my life. I always remember a famus saying, “____11____ are the ladder f human prgress (进步).” I like reading because it nt nly enriches my mind but als lifts my spirit.
Take my favrite bk, Wnder, as an example. It tells the stry f August, a 10-year-ld by. August is a ____12____ by in many ways: he likes riding a bike and playing vide games. But August was brn with facial defrmities (天生面部畸形). ____13____ August turned 10, his mther taught him at hme, but the family finally decided it was time fr him t start schl. August’s first year at schl was terrible. Mst peple were afraid f him, s they stayed away frm him.
But he never ____14____ n himself r lst hpe. During that hard time, a girl named Summer reached ____15____ his hand and wanted t be his friend. At that time, August first felt kindness frm friends.
Then an event at a schl camp ____16____ everything. Peple fund that he was s brave and it was hard fr him t get alng with thers, leading ____17____ t understand him better.
Kindness is the main tpic in Wnder. It helps me knw that a ____18____, simple act f kindness may make a big difference (产生巨大影响) and that we have the ability t chse kindness. Frm this bk, I als learn hw t face ____19____ in peple. Everyne is a special star, always ready t shine.
Bks like this make me believe that reading can ____20____ change hw peple think abut life. S, I hpe yu can find a bk that brightens yur day, and try t make reading a part f yur life.
11. A. MviesB. SprtsC. TravellingD. Bks
12. A. specialB. nrmalC. freignD. kind
13. A. UntilB. AfterC. IfD. S
14. A. gave intB. gave awayC. gave ffD. gave up
15. A. asB. frC. tD. at
16. A. changedB. imprvedC. builtD. expected
17. A. herB. himC. themD. us
18. A. carefulB. smallC. freeD. right
19. A. differencesB. prblemsC. difficultiesD. mistakes
20. A. trulyB. luckilyC. quicklyD. mainly
Ⅴ.阅读理解。(共35分)
阅读下列材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
21. Hw lng is the trip in the advertisement (广告)?
A. 9 days.B. 14 days.C. 15 days.D. 29 days.
22. What is the advertisement abut?
A. A travel guide fr Eurpe.B. A bk abut American histry.
C. A new restaurant in Bstn.D. A cruise trip in New England.
23. Which f the place is NOT in the trip?
A. Bstn.B. Prtland.C. Glucester.D. New Yrk.
B
In a quiet kingdm, truble was cming. Sme thieves wanted t steal the ryal jewels. These jewels were very imprtant t the kingdm. The king, Captain Smith, and Captain Jnes knew they had t d smething quickly. But hw culd they keep the jewels safe withut making t much nise? They had a great idea—they dressed up as cleaning ladies!
With their masks n, they started t wrk. They knew the castle well, s they set traps arund the treasure rm. They put thin rpes n the flr. Near the dr, they dug small hles and cvered them with light bards. When the thieves finally came int the treasure rm and reached fr the jewels, they met the traps. Sme fell int the hles, and sme fell dwn because f the rpes.
Nt lng after, new truble arrived. A grup f pirates came t the castle. They shuted ludly and asked fr all the treasures. The pirates were knwn fr being rugh and always wanting mre. But the king and his friends, still dressed as cleaning ladies, were nt afraid at all. They thught tgether and made a special plan.
They knew they had a special way t fight—their lve fr cleaning. They led the pirates int a rm full f cleaning tls. As sn as the pirates were all inside, they turned n a simple but useful thing. Water pipes (水管) sprayed water frm the crners, and sap dispensers (皂液器) made lts f bubbles. The pirates were very surprised. They slipped and fell n the sapy flr. They frgt abut their swrds (剑) and threats. Sn, they were caught, and their pirate attack failed.
— The Masked Cleaning Ladies: Save the Day and Meet the Pirates
24. Why did the masked cleaning ladies set up traps in “The Masked Cleaning Ladies Save The Day”?
A. T play a jke n the queen.B. T prtect the ryal jewels frm thieves.
C. T test their trap-making skills.D. T make the castle mre interesting.
25. Accrding t the passage, which is NOT the way t fight against the thieves and pirates?
A. Using real weapns (武器) like swrds t fight directly.
B. Dressing up as cleaning ladies t make a surprise.
C. Setting traps with rpes and hles arund the treasure rm.
D. Using water pipes and sap dispensers t make the pirates slip.
26. What cmmn quality d the masked cleaning ladies shw in bth stries?
A. Laziness.B. Kindness.C. Intelligence (智慧).D. Pliteness.
27. What is the main idea f these tw stries?
A. Sme simple ways t make a castle clean and tidy.
B. The imprtance f prtecting treasures in a kingdm.
C. The adventures f the masked cleaning ladies when facing dangers.
D. What pirates’ life is like n their ships and during their adventures.
C
D yu ever feel yu can’t think clearly after playing n the phnes fr t lng? If yu d, welcme t the wrld f “brain rt (脑腐化)”!
The phrase (短语) first appeared in 1854, but nw it refers (特指) t what happens when smene spends t much time nline. The frequency (频率) f using the phrase keeps grwing these years. In 2024, the Oxfrd even name it Wrd f the Year.
S what will happen if yu have brain rt? Well smetimes it seems like yur brain is a blank fr a while. Fr example, yu start frgetting things that happened just nw. Yu might find yurself walking int a rm and frgetting why yu’re there. Lking fr a thing that is just in yur hand is anther symptm (症状).
The bad sides g beynd (超过) thse funny things. Brain rt can cause the lss f critical (批判的) thinking. Yur emtins may experience ups and dwns mre ften.
But dn’t be afraid! Slving the prblem desn’t need any medicine. Start by cutting dwn yur screen time. Remember, living withut apps like TikTk r Xiahngshu fr a few hurs wn’t be t hard. Try t take a break t enjy the real wrld. Yu can jin in physical activities, read real bks (nt the vides that can let yu read ne in 3 minutes), and talk t real persns face-t-face.
Just like a garden needs care t grw healthy plants, yur brain needs gd habits t stay strng. Take care f it, s that mre beautiful flwers f creativity and happiness can blm (盛开) inside!
28. Hw des the writer start the passage?
A. By raising questins.B. By giving examples.C. By listing numbers.D. By making cmparisn.
29. What des the underlined wrd blank mean in the passage?
A. a.B. b.C. c.D. d.
30. What can we learn frm the passage?
A. It’s very hard t slve the prblem f brain rt.
B. Reading bks in 3 minutes practices yur brain.
C. Enjying the real wrld is gd fr the brain.
D. Brain rt appeared in 2024 as a new phrase.
31. What’s the writer’s purpse (目的) f writing this passage?
A. T tell peple t never use the Internet again.
B. T advise peple t take care f their brain.
C. T share sme ppular wrds f the year 2024.
D. T explain the reasns why brain rt happens.
D
The theme (主题) and lg fr the 2025 Spring Festival Gala were intrduced n Nvember 29, 2024. This event, which marks the Year f the Snake in the Chinese zdiac, prmises t be a jyful and fantastic celebratin. The theme fr this year’s gala is “Si Si Ru Yi, Sheng Sheng Bu Xi”, which carries deep cultural and symblic meanings.
The Chinese lunar calendar divides time int 60-year-lng cycles and represents (代表) each year with 10 “Tiangan” characters and 12 “Dizhi” characters. Fr the Year f the Snake, which fits the year 2025, the characters are “Yi Si”.
In traditinal Chinese timekeeping system, a day is divided (分割) int 12 parts, and each part is tw hurs lng. The first part “Zi” is frm 23:00 t 1:00, and “Si” Chinese represents the sixth part f the day, when the sun is high in the sky, symblizing the rise f Yang energy and the hiding f Yin energy. It’s a time when everything seems t wake up and cme t life.
By using “Si Si Ru Yi” as the theme, the 2025 Spring Festival Gala hpes t bring gd wishes t every family and the natin. “Sheng Sheng Bu Xi” means that life ges n endlessly, representing the endless energy and prsperity (繁荣) f the China.
The main lg is creative and meaningful. Its design (设计) uses the Oracle Bne Script character “Si” as its creative part. In details, there are tw “Si” characters put tgether in a mirrr image, making it lk like “Yi” (乙) and “Si”(巳). ▲ , like a twfld wish fr luck. It’s a nice way t bring gd luck and send happy wishes t everyne in the Snake Year.
32. Which f the fllwing is prbably during the time f Si?
A. B. C. D.
33. Which sentence can be put in the ▲ ?
A. This means the end f hardship and start f luck
B. This shws that the design is very unusual
C. This shws the mix f traditinal and tday’s art
D. This means gd things will happen twice
34. In which part f a newspaper can yu prbably read this passage?
A. Culture.B. Sprts.C. Science.D. Histry.
35. What is the best title fr this passage?
A. The 2025 Spring Festival Gala: A Musical Celebratin
B. The Theme and Lg f the 2025 Spring Festival Gala
C. The Chinese Lunar Calendar and the Year f the Snake
D. Traditinal Chinese Timekeeping and Its Imprtance
E
①Chinese scientists are trying ways t build huses n the mn using bricks (砖) made frm fake lunar sil (土). These bricks were sent t China’s space statin n the Tianzhu-8 carg spaceship. The team wrking n this prject plans t shape the bricks using mrtise and tenn jints (榫卯结构), a methd frm ancient buildings, t build an egg-shaped huse n the mn, accrding t a CCTV reprt.
②The mn has always been an imprtant gal fr space explratin (探索). Many cuntries have made lng-term plans fr human activities n the mn. China hpes t send astrnauts there by 2030 and build a research statin by 2035. A lab in Wuhan, China, has created a sandbx t shw hw a future mn base might be built.
③Ding Lieyun, the leader f the team making the lunar sil bricks, said building n the mn is very hard. The mn has difficult envirnments, including n water, lw gravity (重力), big temperature changes, and frequent small earthquakes (地震). These make the building prcess very difficult.
④After many tests, the team chse a tw-layer dme design called the “lunar pt”, This design is light, uses fewer materials, and wrks well fr keeping warm and staying strng. Inside, the huse will have tw levels: ne fr wrking and ne fr resting.
⑤The bricks will be made using a methd frm ancient Chinese building styles. Rbts will put the bricks tgether, and 3D printing will make the structure strnger. These ideas are based n data frm the U.S. Apll prgram and China’s Chang’e-5 mn missin.
⑥The lunar bricks are nw being tested in space t see if they can g thrugh the difficult envirnment. The first brick shuld return t Earth by 2025, bringing us clser t building hmes n the mn.
36. Which f the fllwings is the right shape f the huse n the mn?
A. B. C. D.
37. What des the underlined wrd “These” refer t in Paragraph 3?
A. The lunar sil bricks.B. Difficult envirnments.
C. Big temperature changesD. Small earthquakes.
38. What can we infer frm the passage?
A. Building huses n the mn is a difficult task fr Chinese scientists.
B. The lunar bricks are already used t build a cmplete huse n the mn.
C. China is making sme imprvements in building huses n the mn.
D. Many cuntries shw great interest in building huses n the Mars.
39. Which f the fllwing best describes the structure f the passage?
A. B.
C. D.
Ⅴ.口语运用。(每小题1分，共5分)
阅读下面对话，从7个选项中选择5个恰当的句子完成此对话，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A: Hey! D yu knw DeepSeek can help us a lt in English learning?
B: ___40___ It’s quite useful.
A: What d yu usually use it fr in English?
B: ___41___ It gives interesting ways t remember them.
A: Sunds great. I used it t help with my English writing.
B: Oh? Hw did it help with yur writing?
A: ___42___ And it taught me better expressins (表达)
B: That’s amazing. I didn’t knw it culd d that. Can it help with English speaking?
A: ___43___ With the help f DeepSeek, yu will have better prnunciatin (发音).
B: Ww, I must try that. I’m always nervus when speaking English.
A: Yeah, it can really build up yur cnfidence (信心). ___44___
B: Thanks fr telling me. I can’t wait t use it mre!
A. It pinted ut my grammar mistakes clearly.
B. Yes, f curse.
C. I believe it will be a great help t yu.
D. I usually use it t learn new English wrds.
E. I dn’t think it’s helpful.
F. N, I dn’t.
G. Certainly. It has a lt f useful functins (功能) fr speaking practice.
第Ⅱ卷(45分)
Ⅵ.任务型阅读。(共15分)
第一节：(1-3小题2分，4小题3分，共9分)
阅读下文并回答问题。
45. Des the by think it’s fun t play with friends at schl?
______________________________________
46. Why des the by lve his mm?
______________________________________
47. Accrding t their talk, what are the great things abut being yung?
______________________________________
48. If yu had a chice, wuld yu prefer (宁愿) t stay yung r keep grwing lder? Why?
____________________________________________________________________________________________
49. 读后表达。
If yu are the by, give ne piece f advice t the man and tell the reasn(s). Write at least 40-60 wrds.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Ⅶ.词汇运用。(每小题1分，共5分)
根据句子意思，用括号内所给单词的话当形式填空。注意其形式的变化。
50. Helping thers is helping ________, s we shuld try ur best t help thse in need. (we)
51. Fr the children’s safety, yu shuld put thse ________ in a safe place. (knife)
52. Speak luder. Then I can hear yu ________. (clear)
53. Lisa ________ (hurt) her leg when she played ftball.
54. We shuld ________ /reɪz/ sme mney t help the pr children.
VIII. 完成句子。(共10分)
根据所给提示，完成句子。每空一词，含缩略词。
55. We can learn smething meaningful frm the stry f Nezha 2. (变否定句)
We ________ learn ________ meaningful frm the stry f Nezha 2.
56. 3316.16 millin peple visited Chngqing during the 2025 Spring Festival hliday.(对划线部分提问)
________ ________ peple visited Chngqing during the 2025 Spring Festival hliday?
57. They were s tired that they can’t finish the wrk.（同义句）
They were ________ tired ________ finish the wrk.
58. 伴随着清晨的第一缕阳光，人们在新一天的希望中醒来。(完成译句)
With the first light f mrning sun, peple ________ ________ in the hpe f a new day.
59. the, matter, is, what, with, yu(?)(连词成句)
________________________________?
IX. 书面表达。 (共15分)
60. “巳蛇蜿蜒，福泽新岁”，在这灵蛇开启新岁、志在描绘新征程的2025蛇年，新的希望与机遇已然降临。回首过往学年，我们历经成长蜕变；展望充满生机的蛇年，心中满是憧憬与目标。现要求你在新学期第一节英语课上，用英语简要总结上学期，并重点分享新学期计划。请根据提示，创作一篇演讲稿。
要求：1.80—120词，文章开头已给出，不计入总词数内；
2.文章中不得出现班级、姓名等真实信息。
参考信息：
Hw time flies! The year 2025 has tipted in. Let’s g frward t meet it! Standing here, I want t share with yu my wn persnal imprvement in 2024 and my plans fr the future. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024—2025学年度下期八年级下入学质量监测
英语试题
(全卷共九个大题 满分：150分 考试时间：120分钟)
第Ⅰ卷(105分)
Ⅰ.听力测试。(共40分)
第一节(每小题1.5分，共9分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子，从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1. A. Yu’re right. B. It was great! C. Dn’t wrry.
2. A. I like it. B. Never. C. Fr 2 hurs.
3. A. Oh, I disagree. B. That’s right. C. Sure, I’d lve t.
4. A. Sunds gd. B. It’s kind f yu. C. That’s all right.
5. A. My friend Lily. B. N, I’m nt. C. In the schl.
6. A. Gd idea. B. OK I will. C. Have a nice day.
第二节(每小题1.5分，共7.5分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7. A. /sɜːrv/ B. /’sɪəriəs/ C. /’sɜːrvənt/
8. A. Peter. B. Mark. C. Sam.
9. A. See the rbt shw. B. Study at hme. C. Have a pian lessn.
10. A. 8:00pm. B. 8:30pm. C. 9:00pm.
11.A. B. C.
第三节(每小题1.5分，共7.5分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料，回答第12-13小题。
12. Wh is Mr. White?
A. A teacher. B. A dctr. C. A singer.
13. What gift will they give t Mr. White?
A A thank-yu letter. B. A pht bk. C. A picture f Mr. White.
听第二段材料，回答第14至16小题。
14. What did the girl NOT want t d when she was little?
A. Travel t the mn. B. Wrk in a z. C. Becme a dctr.
15. Hw des the girl like the jb as a dctr?
A. Easy. B. Great. C. Difficult.
16. What’s the main tpic f the cnversatin?
A. Dream jbs. B. Weekend activities. C. Travel.
第四节(每小题1.5分，共6分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17. When is the party?
A. On Friday. B. On Saturday C. On Sunday.
18. What d Masn and Grace advise friends t bring t the party?
A. Themselves and smething nice fr Mlly. B. Delicius things t eat and drink. C. A small gift fr Masn and Grace.
19. What shuld peple d if they can’t find the huse?
A. Ask ther peple fr help B. Call Masn and Grace fr help. C. Lk at the map n their phnes.
20. Why d the speakers give the message?
A. T ask their friends t have a trip with them.
B. T ask their friends t have dinner with them
C. T ask their friends t cme t Mlly’s birthday party.
第五节 听并填空。(每小题2分，共10分)
听两遍。依据你所听到的短文，在空白处填入适当的单词，每空一词。
Ⅱ.语法选择。(每小题1分，共10分)
从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
【1~10题答案】
【答案】1. C 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. C 6. A 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. B
Ⅲ.完形填空。(每小题1分，共15分)
根据短文内容，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
【11~20题答案】
【答案】11. D 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. B 16. A 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. A
Ⅴ.阅读理解。(共35分)
阅读下列材料，从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案，并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
【21~23题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. D 23. D
B
【24~27题答案】
【答案】24. B 25. A 26. C 27. C
C
【28~31题答案】
【答案】28. A 29. D 30. C 31. B
D
【32~35题答案】
【答案】32. B 33. D 34. A 35. B
E
【36~39题答案】
【答案】36. D 37. B 38. C 39. D
Ⅴ.口语运用。(每小题1分，共5分)
【40~44题答案】
【答案】40. B 41. D 42. A 43. G 44. C
第Ⅱ卷(45分)
Ⅵ.任务型阅读。(共15分)
第一节：(1-3小题2分，4小题3分，共9分)
【45~49题答案】
【答案】45. Yes.
46. Because she really cares abut him.
47. Being passinate abut everything in life, enjying each day better, and being mre creative.
48. I prefer t stay yung. Because if I can stay yung, I will be mre creative and have mre pprtunities t learn and try.
49. 例：
I advise yu t stay active and try new things. Even thugh yur bdy might feel stiff, mving and explring can help yu feel better. Als, trying new things can help yu learn mre and enjy life mre. Remember, life is abut enjying every mment, n matter yur age.
Ⅶ.词汇运用。(每小题1分，共5分)
根据句子意思，用括号内所给单词的话当形式填空。注意其形式的变化。
【50题答案】
【答案】urselves
【51题答案】
【答案】knives
【52题答案】
【答案】clearly
【53题答案】
【答案】hurt
【54题答案】
【答案】raise
VIII. 完成句子。(共10分)
根据所给提示，完成句子。每空一词，含缩略词。
【55题答案】
【答案】 ①. can’t ②. anything
【56题答案】
【答案】 ①. Hw ②. many
【57题答案】
【答案】 ①. t ②. t
【58题答案】
【答案】 ① wake ②. up
【59题答案】
【答案】What is the matter with yu
IX. 书面表达。 (共15分)
【60题答案】
【答案】例文：
Hw time flies! The year 2025 has tipted in. Let’s g frward t meet it! Standing here, I want t share with yu my wn persnal imprvement in 2024 and my plans fr the future.
Last term, I made prgress in many areas. My English imprved a lt, especially in reading and writing. I’m healthier than befre because I exercised a lt. What’s mre, I have gt tw new hbbies: swimming and hiking.
This year, I have set sme new gals t make myself better. First, I will practice speaking English every day t becme mre cnfident. Secnd, I plan t read mre bks t expand my knwledge.
I believe I can achieve my gals. Let’s make 2025 a year f grwth and success! Thank yu!Time with family
Activity
Mnkey Arund: A new 21. ______ shw.
Place
The Sunshine Theatre: a new place in Jake’s 22. ______.
Time
Jake and his parents watched the shw at 23. ______’clck in the afternn.
Feelings
After watching the shw, Jake thught it was a wnderful 24. ______.
25. ______ time with family brught much jy and happiness t Jake.
a.[adj.] Usually used in g blank. It means smething in yur head disappeared fr n reasn.
e. g. When I saw the beautiful girl, my mind just went blank.
b.[v.] If yu blank, yu can’t remember what yu had in mind befre.
e. g. I just blanked in the exam.
c.[n.] A space withut wrds r pictures n a piece f paper.
e. g. Please fill in the blank after reading the passage.
d. [n.] Used t say a situatin when yu frget smething.
e. g. I tried t think f his name but my mind was a blank.
A 10-year-ld by and a 70-year-ld man sat dwn, asking and answering each ther questins abut age. This is their talk (Q means questin and A means answer)
The man
Q: What is bad abut being yung?
The by
A: Well, ging t schl. Yu get lts f hmewrk. But it’s als fun t play with friends there.
Q: What is bad abut being ld?
The man
A: Nt being able t d things yu culd d when yu were yung. Yur bdy gets stiff (僵硬的). It hurts smetimes. And yu might get sick mre ften.
Q: In yur imaginatin (想象), what is great abut being ld?
The by
A:I can buy things I want. Oh, I can als get married (结婚), haha.
Q: Frm yur experience, what is great abut being yung?
The man
A: Yu are passinate (热情) abut everything in life. It helps yu enjy each day better. And yu are mre creative because yu are mre pen t new ideas.
Q: D yu want t fall in lve (爱上) with anyne?
The by
A:I’m nt sure what falling in lve is. I lve my mm. She really cares abut me.
Q: Did yu lve anyne?
The man
A: Yes, my wife. Unluckily, she died last year. Oh, dn’t cry little by. That’s life. But yu have mre time t spend with yur family. That’s anther great thing abut being yung.
Then they were asked t give each ther 2 pieces f advice
The by
①Smile mre Yu lk t serius s kids might nt want t be friends with yu. Smile can als bring yu gd luck and make yu face each day mre bravely.
② .
The man
①Read mre bks. Reading helps yu learn new things and let yu see a bigger wrld. It’s als a way t relax yurself.
②Lve ther peple. If yu lve thers, they will lve yu back.
Time with family
Activity
Mnkey Arund: A new 21. ______ shw.
Place
The Sunshine Theatre: a new place in Jake’s 22. ______.
Time
Jake and his parents watched the shw at 23. ______’clck in the afternn.
Feelings
After watching the shw, Jake thught it was a wnderful 24. ______.
25. ______ time with family brught much jy and happiness t Jake.