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    云南师范大学实验中学2020届高三毕业生复习统一检测英语试题

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    云南师范大学实验中学 2020 届高中毕业生
    复习统一检测英语试卷
    (考试时间 100 分钟,满分 120 分)
    注意事项:
    1. 本试卷由三部分组成。其中,第一部分和第二部分的第一节为选择题。第二部分的第二 节和第三部分为非选择题。
    2. 回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;回 答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。
    3. 考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。


    第Ⅰ卷(选择题 共 70 分)
    第一部分阅读理解(共两节,满分 40 分)
    第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 30 分)
    阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中,选出最佳选项。

    A
    Living in cities is wonderful, but the cost in some of the big U.S. cities, such as New York and Los Angeles, is a big problem for living there. Fortunately, this country has many good cities where the cost of living is more affordable.
    Pittsburgh,PA
    Pittsburgh is a great city to have busy and noisy activities without feeling overwhelmed(不堪重负的). One of the best advantages here is the low cost of housing and
    other fees. Even when you live there, the view of the city from Mount Washington doesn’t get old. Three major sports teams have stadiums there, and the energy in Pittsburgh on game days is something that’s hard to find anywhere else.
    Grand Rapids, MI
    While the transportation costs are a bit above average, Grand Rapids makes up for that with low housing and health care costs. If you love public art and craft beer, Grand Rapids is a great choice. The city gives people a small-town feeling, with people always waving hello as you walk by. There are 1200 acres of parks within the city. If you’re looking for more water than the river offers, Lake Michigan is less than an hour away.
    Knoxville,TN
    Knoxville’s housing costs are below the national average. It is known as the most dog-friendly city, which is probably the best selling point a city could have. The Knoxville Museum of Art has fun classes so you can continue to learn and improve skills throughout your lifetime.
    Buffalo, NY
    New York City may not be affordable, but Buffalo certainly is. It’s also one of the
    most beautiful cities to live in with all the views next to rivers.You’ll also have one of the world’s most beautiful natural wonders, Niagara Falls, a short drive away. There are great skiing and ice-skating areas in Buffalo.
    1. What is special about Pittsburgh, PA?
    A. It always hosts many sporting activities. B. It offers the lowest cost of housing.
    C. It becomes active on game days.
    D. It allows people to climb Mount Washington.
    2. What do we know about Grand Rapids, MI?
    A. It is full of warmness. B.It is a small city.
    C. Its transport network is developed. D.Its health care is good for old people.
    3. Which city is good for winter sports lover?
    A. Pittsburgh, PA. B. Grand Rapids, MI. C. Knoxville, TN. D. Buffalo, NY.


    B
    In March, days before her 15th birthday, Ashima Shiraishi successfully climbed
    Horizon on Mt. Hiei in Japan. She became the first woman and youngest person ever to solve the “V15” boulder( 攀岩) problem, considered the most difficult type of problem in
    the sport.
    Shiraishi is also the world’s youngest person to solve the V10,V13,and V14 boulder problem, which she did at ages 8, 10, and 13.
    “Once I have a project in mind, I don’t really give up,” she said. “And even if my skin is looking really bad from bouldering, I’ll just get back on it.”
    The New York City native first got to know the sport at age 6 when she saw park-goers climbing Rat Rock in a city park in New York City. Attracted, she started climbing it every day after school and began training at an indoor climbing gym soon after.
    She won her first competition at age 7, competing against grown women climbers.
    “It was mostly the movement that really attracted me because it was almost like dancing. It felt like I was dancing on the rock,” she said.
    Watching Shiraishi climb is like watching a dance of mental and physical courage. At
    5-foot-1 and 100 pounds, she could be considered at a physical disadvantage compared to taller climbers who can reach holds more readily. But she makes up for it with smooth movements that only a climber of small size could make.
    “The most important part of climbing is not really thinking at all. Once you start
    thinking, you doubt yourself, and that’s the worst that could happen to you,” she said.
    Shiraishi hopes to compete on the most important stage for sports, the 2020 Olympic
    Games in Tokyo, where climbing will make its first official appearance.
    4. When did Shiraishi start climbing?
    A. After visiting an indoor climbing gym.
    B. After seeing people climbing in a city park. C. After watching a climbing competition.
    D. After reading a news report about climbing.
    5. What is key to successful climbing according to Shiraishi?
    A. Thinking about nothing. B. Encouraging yourself.
    C. Receiving a lot of training. D. Entering a lot of competitions.
    6. Which of the following is Shiraishi’s wish?
    A. She can solve the “V15” boulder problem. B. Climbing will become an Olympic event. C. She can take part in the Olympic Games.
    D. Bouldering will attract more young people.
    7. What is the text mainly about?
    A. A difficult boulder problem. B. The personal life of a teenager. C. The popularity of bouldering. D. A successful young climber.


    C
    Ifyou live in Shanghai, you might have to take a “lesson” in sorting garbage, as the city recently introduced new garbage-sorting regulations. It’s now required that people should sort garbage into four categories, namely recyclable, harmful, dry and wet waste. However, if people fail to sort their garbage properly, they can be fined up to 200 yuan. More cities are introducing similar regulations, following the practice in Shanghai. By the end of 2020, garbage-sorting systems will have been built in 46 major Chinese cities, including Beijing and Shenzhen, reported People’s Daily.
    According to a study by the Policy Research Center for Environment and Economy, under the Ministry of Ecology and Environment, over 90 percent of the public believe that garbage sorting is important for the protection of the environment. However, garbage sorting is still a big problem in China. Only 30 percent of participants said they think they are adequately sorting their trash, the study noted.
    According to Xinhua News Agency, it’s partly because many people lack the willingness to sort their own waste. In the past, some previous garbage regulations didn’t give clear fines for people who failed to sort garbage. “It’s a must to have a legal guarantee to promote garbage sorting.” Liu Jianguo, a professor from Tsinghua University, told China Daily. Liu Xinyu, a researcher of the Shanghai Academy of Social Sciences,
    told China Daily that the importance of the new regulations in Shanghai is to change the past voluntary action into compulsory action for everyone.
    Aside from China, many other foreign countries have also introduced garbage-sorting regulations. In Japan, waste sorting has become a basic survival skill, reported Xinhua. There is a fixed time for disposal of each kind of garbage and littering can result in high fines and even jail time. In Germany too, people are asked to sort waste into specific categories, reported HuffPost. For example, in Berlin, people have yellow bins for plastic and metals and blue bins for paper and cardboard.
    8. What can we learn from Paragraph 1?
    A. Shanghai works as a pioneer in garbage sorting. B. People will be fined not less than 200 yuan.
    C. All the cities use the same regulations as Shanghai.
    D. Poisonous waste belongs to four categories in sorting.
    9. Which statement is true according to the passage?
    A. Garbage-sorting systems have been built in 46 major cities. B. People aren’t fined clearly if they fail to sort garbage now. C. Not all the public attach importance to garbage sorting.
    D. People may be put in prison because of littering in Germany.
    10. What can be inferred from Liu Jianguo’s words?
    A. There is a growing concern over garbage sorting worldwide.
    B. The sorting action should be changed from compulsory to voluntary. C. Legal guarantee is a must to promote garbage sorting.
    D. He thinks highly of the legal regulations in garbage sorting.
    11. Which of the following can be the best title for the text?
    A. Cities Get Serious About Waste
    B. Regulations Are of Great Importance
    C. Garbage Is Hard to Recycle Appropriately
    D. Shanghai Puts Garbage-sorting Into Practice


    D
    In the space of just two years, the app Douyin, created by Beijing-based company
    ByteDance, has gathered more than half a billion users—around 40%of them outside
    China—who share short videos of themselves lip-syncing( 假唱), cooking, dancing or just being silly. What sets ByteDance apart is its success in the social media category, which is controlled by Facebook, Twitter and Snap—all Western companies.
    ByteDance calls itself an artificial intelligence company. It uses machine learning and algorithms ( 算法) to figure out what people like most and give them more of what they
    want to see. On Douyin, people can edit and beautify 15-second videos before posting
    them online. The app has even made a phrase to describe people glued to their customized feeds: “shua Douyin” or “scrolling through Douyin”. Last year, the company released TikTok, the overseas version of Douyin. ByteDance’s growing video empire has made it the world’s fifth biggest app maker. ByteDance says TikTok and Douyin together have more than 500 million monthly active users.
    Investors like ByteDance because its hundreds of millions of users attract a lot of advertising money. The video apps are lucrative because they attract a lot of users in their teens and 20s, who are more generous with the money. ByteDance also makes money through income sharing deals. People on TikTok, for example, can buy digital coins to give to other people on the app—like throwing money in a performer’s tip jar. ByteDance takes a cut of those earnings.
    ByteDance’s founder and CEO is Zhang Yiming, a 35-year-old former Microsoft employee. People who have worked with Zhang describe him as someone who thinks deeply about technology and spends much of his free time writing code.
    Like Facebook and Twitter, ByteDance is also battling fake news and inappropriate content. ByteDance promises to add thousands more employees to review content on Douyin.
    12. What makes ByteDance so special?
    A. It is the biggest artificial intelligence company on the earth. B. Its app challenges similar companies’ rule in Western world. C. It invented the social media app initially in the world.
    D. It has controlled Facebook, Twitter and Snap.
    13. Why is Douyin so popular?
    A. It is a new generation hi-tech product. B. It has both home and overseas version.
    C.It meets the demand of people individually. D.It is easy and totally free to operate online.
    14. How does ByteDance make a profit?
    A. By charging the users.
    B. By selling its artificial intelligence. C. By forcing the users to donate.
    D. By charging the advertisement.
    15. What’s the meaning of the underlined word “lucrative” in Paragraph 3?
    A. expensive B. profitable C. popular D. creative


    第二节(共 5 小题;每小题 2 分,满分 10 分) 根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余
    选项。
    Do you want to learn to dance the highly expressive Spanish dance form—flamenco?
    16 Learning flamenco dancing takes time, patience and determination.
    The first step is to find a good teacher. 17 Talk with people who have already taken lessons from the teacher to find out if they were satisfied customers.
    Once you have chosen your teacher or class you then need to buy dancing shoes. Female dancers also need a practice skirt.
    18 The dance style includes special hand and arm movements, the zapateado (stepping movements that create sounds), and practice body movements. It takes a lot of practice to learn flamenco dance steps and to perform them rapidly with the music the dance requires.
    As the movements become more familiar, you must learn the most important part of flamenco—dancing with heart! 19
    Once you are ready to perform, you will need a costume. In addition to dancing shoes, female dancers usually wear long dress. Male dancers often wear trousers and shirts. If you are in doubt about your costume decision, check with your teacher to find out what he or she suggests. 20 You must have the courage to let your passion for the dance shine.
    A. Research lesson prices and the teacher.
    B. It is very important to choose a dance skirt right.
    C. This is not a dance you can learn in a day or a week. D. Flamenco dancing can have many different purposes.
    E. To win over people, you will need more than a costume.
    F. In your class, you will learn how to move your whole body the flamenco way. G.Flamenco dancers must have a deep understanding of music and dance with all their
    hearts.


    第二部分 语言知识应用(共两节,满分 45 分)
    第一节(共 20 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 30 分)
    阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的 最佳选项。
    You just can’t imagine what a brave mother is like. She was a mother of three, who just 21an earthquake, couldn’t tell if her children were 22 for help. Or what if you knew you couldn’t yell at her for help because she couldn’t 23 you? That was what happened to Connie and her three children when the 6.1-magnitude 24 rocked Napa, California. Connie is 25 and communicates with her children using 26 .
    At midnight, Connie and her three children were 27 on the first floor of their two-story home. She and her 16-year-old son, Juan, were 28 awake. Instantly, they realized there were no disaster supplies 29 . Connie, also 30 one-month-old Raul and 8-year-old Adriana, called Juan to come close to her in the darkness and 31
    for him to go upstairs to get a 32 .
    Juan slowly 33 the stairs. He heard a loud creak (嘎吱声). Arriving on the top floor, he moved quickly but 34 to get what he needed. Using the flashlight to guide his 35 back down the stairs, the family was able to take a few 36 from the first floor and 37 . Their home was almost in ruins.
    Being deaf was not deterrent (妨碍物) for this 38 mother. The family made it

    to the 39 safely, which 40 everyone.
    21. A. experienced B. dreamed C. avoided D. reported
    22. A. turning around B.standing by C.crying out D. running away
    23. A.see B.hear C.forgive D.reach
    24. A.earthquake B.storm C.wind D.disaster
    25. A.blind B.deaf C.old D.sick
    26. A.telephone B.email C.hearing aid D.sign language
    27. A.alone B.awake C.asleep D.alive
    28. A.shaken B.called C.forced D.kicked
    29. A.indoors B.outdoors C.upstairs D.downstairs
    30. A.chatting to B.playing with C.focusing on D.running after
    31. A.phoned B.signed C.shouted D.explained
    32. A.helper B.flashlight C.box D.suitcase
    33. A.mopped B.examined C.climbed D.left
    34. A.carefully B.regularly C.bravely D.hurriedly
    35. A.steps B.sisters C.memory D.family
    36. A.animals B.tents C.tools D.items
    37. A.stay B.return C. flee D.cry
    38. A.famous B.skillful C.ordinary D.determined
    39. A.darkness B.shelter C.ruins D.stairs
    40. A.won B.calmed C.cured D.comforted
    第 II 卷(非选择题 共 50 分)
    第二节(共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分) 阅读下面短文,在空白处填入 1 个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
    Thursdays in Iceland were traditionally a day to connect 41family and friends. This may sound strange, 42until 1987, there was no TV broadcast in Iceland on a Thursday. It’s believed that this came from a desire not to have a nation 43 (fill) with TVaddicts.
    If you were to visit Iceland in 1966, you would have noticed that nothing44(show) on the country’s only state-run television station on Thursdays. The idea behind the 45(decide) was to reserve Thursdays as a day for socializing.The ban expanded to the month of July 46 it was decided that there would be nothing on television during the whole month.
    As July was considered a vacation month, it was also expected for locals to spend their days outdoors. 47 (luck), the Thursday ban ended in 1983 while the July ban lasted until
    1987.Finns respect the personal space of each other a lot. You might have seen this funny picture already about Finns 48 (wait) at the bus stop. If you are standing too close to someone while talking you will notice that the other person is trying to get a bit 49(far) from you. You should notice and respect it and leave as much personal space for the other person so that he or she can feel 50(comfort).

    第三部分写作(共两节,满分 35 分)
    第一节短文改错 (共 10 小题;每小题 1 分,满分 10 分) 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共
    有 10 处语言错误,每句中最多两处。错误涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。 增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。 删除:把多余的词用斜线(\)划掉。 修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在其下面写出修改后的词。
    注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
    2. 只允许修改 10 处,多者(从 11 处起)不计分。
    I’ll never forget the day that I met my best friend. I entered into the classroom and noticed we had a new classmate. It was a girl who had long black hairs and there was big smile on her face. I thought to me, “I have to be her friend.” Late, I learned her name was Kelly. I wanted to make sure she could feel welcome, so I invited her to eat lunch with me and introduce her to as many people as possibly. It wasn’t long after she came to my home after school and became part of my family. She was always friendly and had a way of instantly made me happy on a bad day.

    第二节 书面表达 (满分 25 分)
    假定你是李华,你班外教 Mr. Smith 任教期满即将回美国。全班同学为他挑选了 一个具有中国特色的礼物。作为班长,你代表全班同学把礼物赠送给他,并给他留 了一封信,内容包括:
    1.感激之情;2.礼物寓意;3.美好祝愿。
    注意:
    1.词数 100 左右;
    2.可适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。

    2020届高中毕业生复习统一检测
    英语试卷参考答案
    第一部分阅读理解
    第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
    1—3CAD 4—7BACD 8—11ACDA 12—15 BCDB
    第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
    36—40 CAFGE
    第二部分语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
    第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
    21—25 ACBAB26—30 DCADC31—35BBCAA36—40 DCDBD
    第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
    41. with 42. but 43. filled 44. was shown 45. decision
    46. when 47. Luckily 48. waiting 49. farther 50. comfortable

    第三部分写作(共两节,满分35分)

    第一节短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
    making
    before
    possible
    introduced
    Later
    a

    hair
    when
    myself
    I’ll never forget the day that I met my best friend. I entered into the classroom and noticed we had a new classmate. It was a girl who had long black hairs and there was big smile on her face. I thought to me, “I have to be her friend.” Late, I learned her name was Kelly. I wanted to make sure she could feel welcome, so I invited her to eat lunch with me and introduce her to as many people as possibly. It wasn’t long after she came to my home after school and became part of my family. She was always friendly and had a way of instantly made me happy on a bad day.

    第二节书面表达(满分25分)
    参考范文:
    Dear Mr. Smith,
    I’m Li Hua, monitor of the class. Hearing that you are leaving China soon, I’m writing to express our sincere gratitude to you for your excellent work representing the class.
      Thanks to your generous help as well as your great devotion and efforts, we’ve become more interested and done better in our English, which will be of great importance to our further study. Mr. Smith, here’s a Chinese knot, a souvenir that we’ve specially prepared for you. Hopefully you’ll like it. This knot stands for reunion, friendship, love and good fortune. What makes it special is that we’ve all signed on it, making it a good reminder of the happy time we spent together.
    Now, I’d also like to wish you a pleasant journey home and always young and happy! Please remember that you are always welcome to come back to visit us.
    Yours,
    Li Hua


    高考英语作文评分标准
    1.本体总分为25分,按5个档次给分。
    2.评分时,先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来衡量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
    3.词数少于或多余要求字数的,从总分中减去2分
    4.评分时,应注意的主要内容为:内容要点,应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性,上下文的连贯性及语言的得体性。
    5.拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面,评分时,应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英,美拼写汉词汇用法均可接受。
    6.如书写较差,以至影响交际,将分数降低一个档次。
    7.内容要点可用不同方式表达,对紧扣主题的适当发挥不予扣分。

    各档次的给分范围和要求
    第五档(很好);(21-25分)
    1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。
    2.覆盖所有内容要点。
    3.应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。
    4.语法或词汇方面有些许错误,但为尽力使用较复杂结构或词汇所致。具备较强的语言运用能力。
    5.全篇流畅,连词使用较好,有效地使用了语句间的成份,使全文结构紧凑。
    6.完全达到了预期的写作目的。
    第四档(好);(16-20分)
    1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。
    2.虽漏掉一两个次重点,但覆盖所有主要内容。
    3.运用的语法结构或词汇方面能满足任务的要求。
    4.语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确,些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。
    5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文结构紧凑。
    6.达到了预期的写作目的。
    第三档(适当);(11-15分)
    大错(时态、句子结构等)超过五六处,不能及格,写漏了一些内容,但覆盖了主要要点,基本上让人能够看懂,基本达到了预期目的。
    1.基本完成了试题规定的任务, 基本上让人能够看懂,基本达到了预期目的。
    2.大错(时态、句子结构等)超过五六处,不能及格,写漏了一些内容,但覆盖了主要要点。
    3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。
    4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误,但不影响理解。
    5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分,使全文内容连贯。
    6.整体而言,基本达到了语气的写作目的。
    第二档(较差);(6-10分)
    1.未恰当完成试题规定的任务,有要点,但表达不清晰,只有一些句子可读。
    2.漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容,写了一些无关内容。
    3.词法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
    4.有一些语法结构词汇方面的错误,影响了对写作内容的理解。
    5.较少使用语句间的连接成分,内容缺少连贯性。
    6.信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
    第一档(差);(1-5分) 未完成试题规定的任务,只是一些字词的堆积,不成句,让读者根本不明白写什么。
    1.未完成试题规定的任务。
    2.明显遗漏主要内容,写了一些无关内容,原因可能是未理解试题要求。
    3.语法结构单调,词汇项目有限。
    4.较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误,影响对写作内容的理解。
    5.缺乏语句间的连接成分,内容不连贯。
    6.信息未能传达给读者。
    不得分(0分)空白,或者抄写一些无关的东西。
    未能传达给读者任何信息:内容太少,无法评判,写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。




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