湖南省张家界市2018年中考英语试题（Word版，含答案）

这是一份湖南省张家界市2018年中考英语试题（Word版，含答案），共12页。试卷主要包含了答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名，本试题卷共7页等内容，欢迎下载使用。

注意事项：
1、答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号写在答题卡和该试题卷的封面上。
2、考生作答时，选择题和非选择题均须写在答题卡上，在草稿纸和本试题卷上答题无效。考生在答题卡上按如下要求答题：
（1）选择题部分用2B铅笔把对应题目的答案标号所在方框涂黑，修改时用橡皮擦干净，不留痕迹。
（2）非选择题部分（包括填空题、回答问题和写作题）请按题号用0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔书写，否则作答无效。
（3）保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁、不折叠。
（4）请在各题目的答题区域内作答，超出黑色矩形框的答案无效。
3、考试结束后，将本试题卷和答题卡一并交回。
4、本试题卷共7页。如缺页，考生须声明，否则后果自负。
姓 名
准考证号
机密★启用前
湖南省张家界市2018年普通初中学业水平考试试卷
英 语
考生注意：本试卷分为听力、完型填空、阅读理解和写作四部分，满分100分，时量120分钟。
第一部分 听力（共三节，满分20分）
做题时, 请先将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题，每段对话读两遍。
1. What club des Lisa want t jin?
A. The sprts club. B. The chess club. C. The music club.
2. Is Grace at hme?
A. Yes, she is. B. N, she isn’t. C. Srry, I dn’t knw.
3. Why des Tm like pandas?
A. Because they are ugly. B. Because they are handsme. C. Because they are cute.
4. Hw ften des Cheng Ta read?
A. Every day. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
5. Wh is taller?
A. Bill. B. Laura. C. Bill’s elder sister.
第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分 ）
听下面2段对话，每段对话后有2~3个小题，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。
听第6段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. What’s Linda ding?
A. She’s cleaning her rm. B. She’s ding her hmewrk. C. She’s cking at hme.
7. Why des Jim call Linda？
A. T invite her t the supermarket.
B. T invite her t watch a mvie.
C. T invite her t have dinner.
听第7段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。
8. When did Tina g t Sanya?
A. Last summer. B. This spring. C. This summer.
9. Hw did Tina g there?
A. By bus. B. By plane. C. By train.
10. Did she play vlleyball?
A. Yes, she did. B. N, she didn’t. C. N, she desn’t.
第三节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
听下面一段独白，根据所听内容填空。听独白前，你将有15秒钟的时间阅读表格中的内容，听完后将给出25秒钟的作答时间。独白念两遍。

第二部分 完型填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
通读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项填空，使短文意思通顺、结构完整。
A
Last weekend we went camping in a small village in India. First, we tk a lng bus ride t a lake in the cuntryside. Then we 16 ur tents and made a fire t keep us 17 and ck fd n. On the first night, we just sat under 18 mn and tld each ther stries.
The next mrning, my sister and I gt a terrible surprise. When we lked ut f ur 19 , we saw a big snake sleeping near the fire. I was s scared 20 I culdn’t mve. We shuted t ur parents fr help. My dad started 21 up and dwn in the tent. This wke the snake up and it mved away. My dad tld 22 later that snakes dn’t have ears but can feel things mving. He 23 tld me it was imprtant nt t g near a snake. This was a very useful lessn fr me.
16. A. put up B. put dwn C. gave up
17. A. cl B. cld C. warm
18. A. a B. an C. the
19. A. tent B. bus C. huse
20. A. that B. which C. if
21. A. jump B. jumped C. t jump
22. A. I B. me C. my
23. A. t B. als C. either
B
Chinese writer M Yan has wn the 2012 Nbel Prize in Literature (文学). He is the first Chinese 24 has wn this prize.
M Yan was brn int a family in Shangdng 25 1955. He left schl at the age f twelve, first n a farm and 26 in a factry. In 1976 he 27 the PLA and during this time he began t study 28 . His first shrt stry came ut in 1981. He has written many famus bks abut his childhd and his hmetwn. Many f his bks have been translated int English, French and many ther 29 .
M Yan’s winning f the Nbel Prize is bringing mre cnfidence (自信) t the natin’s yung 30 .
24. A. which B. wh C. what
25. A. n B. in C. at
26. A. later B. last C. lately
27. A. jin B. jins C. jined
28. A. drawing B. farming C. writing
29. A. languages B. subjects C. lessns
30. A. speakers B. writers C. listeners
第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Student Vlunteers Needed!
On Saturday, December 12th, frm 10 A.M. until 4 P.M., Carvertn Middle Schl will be hlding a music festival in the schl gym. The special event will feature (以……为特征) many prfessinal musicians and singers.
Interested students shuld speak with Ms. Braxtn, the music teacher. Students wh wuld like t help at the festival must have written permissin frm a parent r guardian (监护人).
31. What time will the festival begin?
A. 1 P.M. December 5th. B. 11 A.M. December 11th. C. 10 A.M. December 12th.
32. Where will the festival be held?
A. In the schl gym. B. On the playgrund. C. In the meeting hall.
33. What task will be dne the day befre the festival begins?
A. Helping perfrmers. B. Setting up the gym. C. Cleaning up the gym.
34. Wh is tld t talk t Ms. Braxtn?
A. Parents. B. Teachers. C. Students.
35. This passage is written t .
A. lk fr student vlunteers B. invite prfessinal musicians C. help parents
B
Dear Marcs,
Hi, my name is Rebecca and I am yur new pen pal. I’m twelve years ld, and I live in Barcelna, Spain. I g t the 7th grade in Saint Michael Schl. On weekdays, I get up at 6 ’clck. The schl starts at 7:30 in the mrning. I have my lunch at the schl cafeteria and I usually leave arund 3:30 in the afternn. I am gd at math, I als like histry and gegraphy but my favrite subject is science. I like playing basketball and sccer. I als play tennis, and I like swimming. On the weekends, I g t the mvie theater with my friends. We like actin mvies. I usually g t church with my parents n Sundays.
Please write and tell me abut yu and yur life. What’s yur family like? What d yu like ding in yur spare time? I hpe t hear frm yu sn.
Best wishes,
Rebecca
36. Rebecca lives in .
A. Spain B. England C. China
37. What time des the schl start?
A. Arund 3:30 P.M.. B. At 7:30 A.M.. C. At 6 :00 A.M..
38. What’s Rebecca’s favrite subject?
A. Math. B. Histry. C. Science.
39. On Sundays, Rebecca with her parents.
A. plays tennis B. ges t church C. ges t the mvie theater
40. Frm this passage we knw .
A. Rebecca and her friends like actin mvies
B. Rebecca desn’t like sprts at all
C. Rebecca and Marcs are classmates
C
Everyne gets angry. Many things may make yu angry. Maybe yur teacher gave yu t much hmewrk. Or maybe a friend brrwed yur favrite vide game and then brke it. Yu may get angry when smething desn’t g yur way. Maybe yu get mad at yurself when yur team lses an imprtant game. Or maybe yu becme a rad rager (路怒族) when a driver accidentally cuts in frnt f yu. That makes yu angry!
Yu need t knw what t d with yur anger. Here are sme things yu can d when yu feel angry:
·Cunt t 10.
·Get r give a hug.
·Talk t a friend yu can trust.
·Draw a picture f yur anger.
·Sing alng with the music player.
·Take sme exercise, such as taking a bike ride, ging skating and playing basketball.
Never getting angry is impssible. But when yu’re angry, yu can d smething and it can make things better. Dn’t let anger be the bss f yu. Take charge f it!
41. Accrding t the passage, which f the fllwing things can make yu angry?
A. Yur friend asked yu t help him.
B. Yur teacher gave yu t much hmewrk.
C. Yur parents gave yu a gift n yur birthday.
42. The underlined part “when smething desn’t g yur way” prbably means .
A. when yu get lst
B. when yu are n a wrng way
C. when things dn’t g as yu imagine
43. In the passage, the writer gives us pieces f advice.
A. five B. six C. seven
44. As fr ding with anger, which f the fllwing is NOT mentined in the passage?
A. Talk t a friend yu believe. B. Get a hug. C. Pull weeds in the garden.
45. The passage is mainly abut .
A. hw t deal with yur anger
B. never getting angry
C. drawing a picture f yur anger
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，根据所读内容回答问题。
When I first arrived n this island, I had nthing. But I’ve fund the ship and made a small bat. I’ve brught back many things I can use—fd and drink, tls, knives and guns. Althugh I have lst everything, I have nt lst my life. S I will nt give up and I will wait fr anther ship. I have already cut dwn trees and built a huse. I g ut with my gun almst every day t kill animals and birds fr fd. I’m even learning t grw fruit and vegetables.
A few weeks ag, I fund the marks f anther man’s feet n the sand. Wh else is n my island? Nt lng after that, I saw sme cannibals trying t kill tw men frm a brken ship. One f them died but the ther ran twards my huse. I helped him kill the cannibals. This man nw lives with me and helps me. I named him Friday because that day was the day I met him. He is smart and I have already taught him sme English.
—Taken frm Rbinsn Cruse
46. Did Rbinsn have anything when he first arrived n the island?

47. What has Rbinsn brught back frm the ship?

48. What is Rbinsn learning t grw?

49. Wh tried t kill tw men frm a brken ship?

50. Why did Rbinsn name the man Friday?

第四部分 写作（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面对话，根据上下文补全对话内容。
Tm: Hi, Sarah. 51
Sarah: We talked abut ur dreams freely in class.
Tm: 52
Sarah: I want t be a singer.
Tm: 53
Sarah: Well, because I think singing is a great way t express my feelings abut the wrld. It’s much fun fr me.
Tm: 54
Sarah: Well, I’m ging t keep n taking singing lessns and practice mre .
Tm: Sunds great! I hpe yur dream will cme true.
Sarah: 55
第二节 书面表达（满分15分）
你班将于本周六组织同学们去张家界国家森林公园进行科普小活动。请你根据下面的提示，以班长李华的名义给同学们发布一则通知。
Hw t get there:
·by bus
When t meet:
·at 8:00 A.M
When t return:
·at 3:30 P.M.
Scientific
activities in Zhangjiajie Frest Park
What t d:
·listen t a talk abut the
frest park
·knw abut plants and
take ntes

Where t meet:
·at the schl gate
要求：1.内容必须包括所提示信息，可适当发挥。
2.文中不能出现自己的真实姓名和学校名称。
3.不少于50词（文章开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数）。
Dear classmates,
May I have yur attentin please? We will have scientific activities in Zhangjiajie Frest Park this Saturday.
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
That’s all. Thank yu!
湖南省张家界市2018年普通初中学业水平考试
英语试题参考答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力（共三节，满分20分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
1-5 BACAB
第二节（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
6-10 CBCBA
第三节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
Mnday 12. Fifteen yuan / 15 yuan/￥15 13. shirts
14. red 15. third/ 3rd
第二部分 完型填空（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
16-20 ACCAA 21-25 CBBBB 26-30 ACCAB
第三部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
31-35 CABCA 36-40 ABCBA 41-45 BCBCA
第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
46. N, he didn’t./N./He didn’t.
47. He has brught back fd and drink, tls, knives and guns.
48. He is learning t grw fruit and vegetables.
49. Sme cannibals./Sme cannibals tried t kill tw men frm a brken ship.
50. Because he met the man n Friday. / Because Friday was the day he met him.
/ Because that day was the day he met him.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分25分）
第一节 补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
What did yu d in class?
52. What d yu want t be in the future? / What’s yur dream?/ What d yu want t be when yu grw up?
53.Why? / Why d yu want t be a singer? / A singer, why?/Why d yu like singing?
54. Hw are yu ging t d that?/ What are yu ging t d?/ What will yu d?
55. Thanks! / Thank yu!/I hpe s!/ Me t!
第二节 书面表达（满分15分）
One pssible versin:
Dear classmates，
May I have yur attentin please? We will have scientific activities in Zhangjiajie Frest Park this Saturday.
We are ging t meet at the schl gate at 8:00 in the mrning. We will g t the frest park by bus. When we get there, first we shuld listen t a talk abut the frest park. Then we will g t the frest t knw abut plants. We shuld take sme ntes abut what we have learned. We will return at 3:00 in the afternn.
That’s all. Thank yu!

评分标准：
1．第1-10题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
2．第11-15题，每小题2分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。11小题Mnday缩写、没大写均给满分；12小题如果没写￥/ yuan, 给1分；13小题shirts没加s给满分；15小题如果只写3给1分)。
3．第16-30题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
4．第31-45题，每小题2分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
5．第46-50题，每小题2分。与答案相符或是有关键词给满分，信息不完整给1分，无关键词不给分。46小题,如果学生回答为N.或者He didn’t.均给满分。
6．第51-55题，每小题2分。与答案相符或是有关键词给满分，表达符合语境酌情给分，不符合语境不给分。
7. 书面表达，总分15分，分5档计分。
1）第一档（13～15分）
信息完整，表达流畅，无语言错误或基本无语言错误。
2）第二档（10～12分）
信息基本完整，表达较流畅，有少量错误，但不影响意思表达。
3）第三档（7～9分）
能传递部分信息，表达不够流畅，语言错误较多，但句子基本可读。
4）第四档（4～6分）
只能传递少量信息，表达不流畅，语言错误多，只有少量句子可读。
5）第五档（1～3分）
只能传递个别信息，表达不清楚，只有个别句子可读。
Great sale!
Time
Frm 11 t Friday.
Special sweaters
We have green sweaters fr nly 12 .
Fr bys
Black 13 fr nly￥22 n the secnd flr.
Fr girls
Skirts in 14 fr nly￥20 n the 15 flr.
Task
Time
Date
Make psters
1 P.M.– 4 P.M.
December 5th
Set up gym
11 A.M.– 4 P.M.
December 11th
Help perfrmers
9 A.M.– 4 P.M.
December 12th
Welcme guests
10 A.M.–2 P.M.
December 12th
Clean up gym
4 P.M.–7 P.M.
December 12th