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    山东省济南市平阴县2020-2021学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题(word版 含答案)
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    山东省济南市平阴县2020-2021学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题(word版 含答案)

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    这是一份山东省济南市平阴县2020-2021学年八年级上学期期末考试英语试题(word版 含答案),共17页。试卷主要包含了5分), A, A, A等内容,欢迎下载使用。

    八年级英语试题
    第Ⅰ卷(选择题 共105分)
    I.听力测试(30分)
    A) 听录音,从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。(7.5分)
    1. A. My father is a teacher. B. My mother is a doctor.
    C. My sister is a nurse.
    2. A. Mike likes to watch sports. B. Game shows are very popular.
    C. I like cartoons best.
    3. A. Will people have robots? B. Can you come to my party?
    C. Is he able to keep them?
    4. A. Let’s make a milk shake. B. Let’s go shopping next week.
    C. There is a shop near here.
    5. A. What’s the best cinema in Pingyin? B. What do you want to be?
    C. Where are you going to work?
    B)听录音,从每题A、B、C三幅图画中选出与听到的对话内容相符的一项。每段对话听两遍。(7.5分)
    6. A. B. C.
    7. A . B. C.
    8. A. B. C.
    9. A. B. C.
    10. A. B. C.
    C)在录音中,你将听到一段对话及五个问题。请根据对话内容及问题选择正确答案。对话及问题听两遍。(7.5分)
    11. A. It’s Friday. B. It’s Saturday. C. It’s Sunday.
    12. A. Geography. B. History. C. Math.
    13. A. To the museum. B. To the park. C. To Kevin’s home.
    14. A. Susan’s mother.B. Susan’s other friends. C. Kevin’s sister.
    15. A. 8. B. 9. C. 10.
    D)在录音中,你将听到一篇短文及五个问题。请根据短文内容及问题选择正确答案。短文及问题听两遍。(7.5分)
    16. A. Playing chess. B. Keeping fish C. Swimming.
    17. A. At 2 B. At 4 C. At 6
    18. A. At least one hour. B. At least two hours. C. At least three hours.
    19. A. He goes to the concert. B. He reads in the library. C. He does his homework.
    20. A. He can’t stand it. B. He doesn’t like it. C. He doesn’t mind it.
    II.读音选词 根据所给句意和音标,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。(5分)
    21. You can _________ /mɪks/ the sugar and the water in a cup.
    A. mix B. milk C. miss D. math
    22. They drive on the left _________ /saɪd/ of the road in Japan.
    A. sad B. said C. side D. soup
    23. Which is the _________ /wɜːst/ cinema in town?
    A. white B. write C. watch D. worst
    24. The prize for the _________ /'wɪnə/ of the competition was an Ipad.
    A. winter B. winner C. wonder D. wallet
    25. The earth is a _________ /'plænɪt/. It’s not a star.
    A. pilot B. police C. parent D. planet
    III.选择填空 从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案。(20分)
    26. ---What do you want to be when you grow up, Jack?
    --- I want to be _____ engineer.
    A. a B. an C. the D. /
    27. ---Linda, what are you going to do next year?
    ---I like music. So I’m going to _____playing the piano.
    A. get up B. cut up C. take up D. stay up
    28.---Next week is Bob’s birthday. I’m going to buy_____ special for him. What about a book?
    --- A good idea. He likes reading a lot.
    A.something B. nothing C. anything D. everything
    29. ---Can you go to the movies with me, Mary?
    ---_____, but I have to do my homework first.
    A. No, thanks B. I’m afraid not
    C. Sure, I’d love to D. I’m sorry to hear that
    30. ---Could you _____the TV, dear? I want to watch the movie called I Robot.
    ---OK, mom. I also want to watch it.
    A. turn up B. turn down C. turn off D. turn on
    31. Jane likes running. She even runs ______than the boys in our class.
    A. fast B. faster C. slowly D. more slowly
    32. ---Do you like seeing a movie on your phone?
    ---No, I_______ do that. I think it’s bad for my eyes.
    A. often B. usually C. sometimes D. hardly ever
    33. ---If we want to get good grades, we should study hard.
    --- ________.
    A. No, it doesn’t B. Yes, you are right C. Well, don’t worry D. Sounds funny
    34.---_______yogurt do we need?
    ---One cup.
    A. How many B. How long C. How far D. How much
    35. ---Do you study as ______as July?
    ---I think Judy studies harder than me.
    A. hardly B. harder C. hardest D. hard
    36. Kate, I’m sorry to _______you. I’m not available next week.
    A. advise B. accept C. trust D. refuse
    37. There are ________of students in our school but only ______of them are girls.
    A. hundred; two hundreds B. hundreds; two hundreds
    C. hundred; two hundred D. hundreds; two hundred
    38. There ______a class meeting next Monday.
    A. will be B. will have C. is going to have D. are going to have
    39. --- ____ do you surf the Internet, Tom?
    ---Only once a week.
    A. How far B. How long C. How often D. How soon
    40. Which of the following is junk food?
    A. B. C. D.
    41. ______she had to walk to school every day, _____she didn’t want to tell her parents about her lost wallet.
    A. Although; / B. Although; but C. Although; and D. Though; and
    42. If you share your worries with your parents, they _______you out.
    A. help B. will help C. helps D. helped
    43. ---I want to improve my English, what’s your_______?
    ---Do more practice.
    A. concert B. preparation C. advice D. step
    44. Our English teacher often makes us ______in class. We all like her a lot.
    A.laughing B. laughed C .to laugh D. laugh
    45. ---My friends and I will go to the mountains today.
    ---_______.
    A.My pleasure B. Thanks a lot C. Nice to meet you D. Have a nice day
    IV.完形填空 阅读短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。(15分)
    Joe loved to eat hamburgers in fast food restaurants 46 his friend Daniel. Every week, they would go to eat hamburgers.
    One day, Joe    47 a dream. In his dream, there 48 a very big hamburger. And there was 49 voice said, “Eat it! It is    50 !” So Joe took this big hamburger and began to eat. But suddenly(突然) Joe felt 51 and had a serious stomachache. When he looked around for help, he saw   52   in a mirror(镜子). He became very fat! “No!” Joe shouted and    53  from the terrible dream. He ran to the bathroom quickly    54  if he became fat in real life. The dream made Joe think if he had a healthy    55   habit.
    The next day, Joe and Daniel went to eat hamburgers as usual(像往常一样).   56  Joe stopped at the door of the restaurant and said, "Daniel, if we keep 57 so many hamburgers, we 58 fat or sick. Shall we eat something else today?“Daniel said, "Of course. Why do
    you change(改变) your mind today?”
        “I think fast food isn't all bad. But we shouldn't eat them too often,” said Joe.   59   that day, they began to eat 60 hamburgers and more healthy food.
    46. A. with B. to    C. from   D. on
    47. A. did B. had  C. made    D. took
    48. A. is B. are   C. was  D. were
    49. A. a B. an   C. /  D. some
    50. A. dangerous B. scary   C. delicious   D. serious
    51. A. happy B. sick   C. relaxed   D. interested
    52. A. his B. him   C. himself    D. he
    53. A. turned up B. got up   C. cut up  D. woke up
    54. A. to see B. see      C. seeing     D. saw
    55. A. sleeping     B. studying   C. reading     D. eating
    56. A. And B. But C. Or D. So
    57. A. ate B. eat C. eating D. to eat
    58. A. will get B. get C. got D. gets
    59. A. For B. From C. In D. At
    60. A. few B. fewer C. little D. less
    V.补全对话从每题A、B、C、D 四个选项中,选出一个最佳答案完成对话。(5分)
    A: Hi, Tom! What are you doing?
    B: Hi, John! I’m reading a book.
    A:61.
    B: It’s about computers.
    A: Isn’t it boring?
    B: No, I like computers very much. 62 .
    A: Really? 63 .
    B: I’m going to read many books on computers. And I’m going to study computer science at a university.
    A: Great!
    B: What about you? 64 .
    A: I like playing basketball. So I want to be a basketball player.
    B: How are you going to do that?
    A: 65 .
    B:Yeah. It’s the best way to become a good basketball player.
    61. A. How much is it? B. What’s it about?
    C. What do you do? D. Where did you buy it?
    62. A. I’m going to see a movie with my friend.
    B. I want to be a computer programmer when I grow up.
    C. She wants to be a teacher because she likes children.
    D. My sister wants to be a doctor.
    63. A. How are you going to be a teacher?
    B. How is she going to be a doctor?
    C. Where are you going?     
    D. How are you going to be a computer programmer?
    64. A. Where are you going to work? B. What’s your favorite color?
    C. What’s the best movie theater? D. What do you want to be?
    65. A. I sleep nine hours every night. B. I often eat vegetables and fruit.
    C. I’m going to practice basketball every day. D. I’m going to draw pictures every day.
    VI.阅读理解 阅读下列短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中,选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。(30分)
    A
    People drink tea. There are many kinds of tea, such as black tea, green tea, white tea and yellow tea. People drink a lot of tea in China. Some people drink it because they think it makes them healthy. Many people drink it because it tastes very good. It is delicious.
    People drink a lot of tea in Japan. People drink a lot of green tea in South Korea, too. In Vietnam, people like to drink coffee first. Then they drink tea.
    People drink a lot of tea in England. Every afternoon, people drink tea. It’s “tea time”. English people like to drink their tea with milk in it.
    Many people drink black tea in the US. In the South, people like to drink sweet tea. Sweet tea is cold black tea with sugar in it. Most tea comes from China. Some tea comes from India or Sri Lanka. Kenya, Japan and Indonesia also grow tea.
    66.How many kinds of tea are mentioned in the first paragraph?
    A. Five          B. Four        C. Three        D. Two

    67.In China, why do some people drink tea ?
    A. It makes them healthy.       B. It makes them young.       
    C. It makes them smart.        D. It makes them warm.
    68.Where do people like to drink coffee before tea?
    A. In Japan.        B. In South Korea. C. In Vietnam.      D. In Sri Lanka.
    69.In England, what do people like to drink tea with in it?
    A. sugar          B. ice           C. juice          D. milk
    70.Where does most tea come from?
    A. China         B. Japan          C. India        D. Indonesia
    B
    Mrs. Green is a young woman. She lives in New York with her family.
    It was Mother’s Day last Sunday, but Mrs. Green was not very happy, because she was 800 miles away from her parents. In the morning she phoned her mother to wish her a happy Mother’s Day, and her mother told her about the beautiful lilacs(丁香) in the yard.
    Later that day, when she told Mr. Green, her husband, about the lilacs, he said, “I know where we can find all that you want. Get the children and come on.” So they went, driving down the country roads.
    There on a small hill, they saw a lot of beautiful purple lilacs. Mrs. Green ran quickly to enjoy the flowers. Carefully, she picked a few here and a few there. On their way home there was a smile(微笑) on her face. When they were going past an old people’s home, Mrs. Green saw an old woman sitting in a chair. She had no children with her. They stopped the car and Mrs. Green walked to the old woman and put the flowers in her hands, and smiled at her. The old woman thanked her again and again. She smiled happily, too.
    When Mrs. Green came back to the car, her children asked her, “Who is that old woman? Why did you give our flowers to her?”
    “I don’t know her,” Mrs. Green said. “But it’s Mother’s Day, and she has no children. I have all of you, and I still have my mother. Just think how much those flowers meant to her.”
    71. Mrs. Green was not very happy on Mother’s Day because ________.
    A. her kids didn’t give her a gift B. she had to look after her family
    C. her kids lived 800 miles away D. she was far away from her mother
    72. From the phone call, Mrs. Green knew there were many beautiful lilacs ________.
    A. in her mother’s yard B. on the hill C. near the lake D. in her son’s bag
    73. How did the Greens get to the small hill?
    A. On foot. B. By bike. C. By car. D. By train.
    74. Mrs. Green gave the flowers to the old woman because ________.
    A. the old woman was her friend B. she wanted to make the old woman happy
    C. her children asked her to do so D. those flowers in her hands were not fresh
    75. Which of the following is NOT true?
    A. Mrs. Green missed her mother very much.
    B. Mrs. Green was a very friendly young woman.
    C. Mrs. Green thought she was luckier than the old woman.
    D. Mrs. Green picked lots of beautiful flowers for her mother.
    C
    A square dance(方形舞) is a traditional dance in the US. When dancers dance, a caller sings out instructions(指令). The dancers do whatever the caller tells them to do. Callers need to have clear voices(嗓音) so that the dancers can understand them. Good callers can make the dances interesting
    Tom Barry had been a square dance caller for many years. One day, he got a call from a woman named Bea Kesling. Bea asked Tom if he would sing calls for llamas(美洲驼). At first, Tom thought Bea was talking about a dance club called the “Llamas”. When she told him she was talking about dancing animals, Tom thought the idea sounded great. He said he’d do it.
    Bea knew all about training llamas. Tom “called” when Bea and her friends gave dance lessons to eight of the animals. Bea dressed her llamas beautifully. Each llama danced with a person who guided the animal through the steps. They were quick learners—it wasn’t long before these animals could dance well.
    Their first dance was for some llama ranchers(农场主). The ranchers knew that llamas were smart and friendly, but they had never seen llamas dance. When Tom called and the llamas danced, the ranchers couldn’t believe their eyes. The show was a big success. Since then, the llamas and Bea have kept dancing to the voice of Tom Barry, the world’s first llama square dance caller.
    76. The first paragraph mainly talks about
    A. the traditional American dances B what square dance callers do
    C the history of square dances D how to dance square dances
    77. Bea called Tom because she wanted him to
    A. buy her llamas B. join a dance club
    C. sing calls for llamas D. teach her how to sing calls
    78. What does the underlined word"They" in Paragraph 3 refer to?
    A. Tom and Bea. B. Bea’s eight llamas.
    C. Bea and her friends. D. Bea’s friends and llamas
    79. Who were the first people to see the llamas dance?
    A. Bea’s family. B. Tom’s friends.
    C.Some llama ranchers. D. Some lovers of square dances
    80. How did Tom probably feel at the end of the passage?
    A. Worried. B. Angry. C. Surprised. D.Glad.
    第Ⅱ卷(非选择题 共45分)
    VII.选词填空(10分)
    A. 阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的单词填空(每词限用一次)。
    but stories scientists many famous


    Now many children have different dreams. Some wish to be great 81 .Some children wish to be writers some day. 82 young people like Han Han and Guo Jingming. They want to be 83 writers like them. They want to write 84 for people to read, 85 they should know that they need to be good readers first before they are really good writers.
    B.阅读短文,从方框中选择适当的动词,并用其适当形式填空。有的需要加助动词或不定式符号(每词限用一次)。

    buy help have order laugh
    Tomorrow is my grandmother’s birthday. We 86 a birthday party for her. Now, my family are preparing for the party. My father is calling a cake shop 87 a birthday cake, and he will go to buy some fruit and drinks this afternoon. What am I doing? Oh, I 88 my mom make a “long-life noodle”. It’s a symbol of long life. Last year, we asked my grandma to eat a 5-meter-long noodle. And that made her 89 over and over again.
    Choosing a birthday gift is the most difficult and the most important. Last year, we90
    a smart phone for my grandma. She enjoyed it very much. This year we will give her a noodle-making machine. We hope she’ll like it.
    VIII.完成句子 根据汉语意思完成英语句子,每个空格填一个单词。(5分)
    91. 在平阴,共享电动车在人们的生活中将发挥着重要的作用。
    Electric car-sharing will_______ an important_______ in people’s life in Pingyin.
    92. 由于雨天,小明昨天从自行车上摔了下来。
    Xiao Ming ______ ________ from his bike yesterday because of the rainy weather.
    93.中国女排在里约奥运会上表现得特别出色。
    Chinese women’s volleyball team ________ ________ the best in Rio Olympic Games.
    94. 成功人士都有一个共同的特征,那就是不会轻言放弃。
    Successful people have one thing ________ __________, that is, “Never give up.”
    95.为了减少污染,拯救我们的地球,我们应该选择绿色出行。
    We should choose green travel to reduce the _________and save our _________.

    IX.任务型阅读 根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。(5分)
    Sam had a goldfish(金鱼). He kept his pet in a small bowl next to his bed. Sam was careful not to give his goldfish too much food and made sure he had clean water and was happy.
    One day Sam said to Mom, “(96)
    “Why?” asked Mom.
    Sam told Mom that Tinker has no one to swim with and that he sometimes just sits behind his toy tree in his bowl.
    “(97)” asked Mom.
    “Yes!” shouted Sam.
    The next day, Sam and Mom went to the pet store near their home. The store had only three goldfish left. (98) He thought and thought. Finally, Mom said to him, “We’ll take all three.”
    “Wow!” shouted Sam. “That would be great!”
    Then they had to buy a bigger bowl so the fish would have enough room to swim. (99)
    When Sam got home and put all the fish in their new bowl, Tinker started swimming so fast. Sam knew Tinker was now a happy fish and no longer lonely(孤独的)。(100) He was not lonely either!
    A. Do you think Tinker would be happy to have another fish to swim with him?
    B. Sam is not a good owner.
    C. Sam could not decide which one he wanted to take home.
    D. They even bought another toy for the new family of fish
    E. I don t think Tinker is very happy.
    F. I think Tinker wants to have a girl friend.
    G. Sam spent the night thinking of three names for his new fish.




    X.书面表达(25分)
    假如你是Jack,寒假即将到来,你的笔友Dale想了解你将如何度过这个寒假,请根据以下提示内容,给Dale写一封信,谈谈你的活动假期安排,字数不少于100词。
    提示:1.学习方面;(完成作业,读一本好书,……)
    2. 业余爱好方面;(学习一两项业余爱好,……)
    3. 健康方面;(锻炼,饮食,……)
    4. 旅行方面。(旅游地及原因,……)
    要求:1. 所写内容应包括所提供信息,可适当发挥;
    2. 句意流畅,表达清楚,语法正确,上下文连贯;
    3. 卷面整洁,书写规范;
    4. 不得出现真实的人名、校名等相关信息。
    Dear Dale,
    I’m happy to share my winter vacation plans with you.





    Yours,
    Jack

    八年级上学期英语试题参考答案
    I.听力测试(30分)
    1-5 CABAC 6-10 CCCAB 11-15 BACBB 16-20 BABBB
    II.选择填空(20分)
    21-25 BCCCD 26-30 BDBDD 31-35 DDACA 36-40 ABCDD
    III.完形填空(15分)
    41-45 ABCAC 46-50 BCDAD 51-55 BCABB
    IV.补全对话(5分)
    56-60 BBDDC
    V.阅读理解(30分)
    61-65 BACDA 66-70 CADCB 71-75 DBCCC
    VI.选词填空(10分)
    76. scientists 77.Many 78.famous 79. stories 80. but
    81.will have 82. to order 83.am helping 84.laugh 85.bought
    Ⅶ: 完成句子(5分)
    86. play part/role 87. fell down 88. brought out 89. in common 90.pollution earth
    Ⅷ七选五(10分)91-95 EACDG
    X.书面表达(25分)
    (1) 22-25分:短文内容包含所有提示内容,能运用丰富的词汇、短语、句式正确表达个人观点。语句流畅,书写工整,语法错误较少(1-2处),字数符合要求。
    (2) 18-21分:短文内容基本符合要求内容,能基本正确表达个人观点。语句通顺,语言较丰富,书写工整,语法错误较少(3-4处),字数基本符合要求。
    (3) 15-18分:短文内容基本符合要求内容,能基本正确表达个人观点。语句尚通顺,书写较工整,语法错误较多,字数在80词左右。
    (4) 10-14分:短文内容不能紧扣要求内容,不能正确表达个人观点。语句不够通顺,语法错误较多,书写一般,字数在60词以下。
    (5) 9分以下:短文内容不能紧扣要求内容,不能表达个人观点。词不达意,影响理解。



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